Timeline for Why is Matthew 1:18 understood as referring to a virgin conception?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jan 2, 2021 at 2:50 | comment | added | Ruminator | That doesn't seem congruent with Matthew's goal. | |
| Jan 2, 2021 at 2:50 | comment | added | matt2048 | What about the possibility of a human father besides Joseph? | |
| Jan 2, 2021 at 2:18 | comment | added | Ruminator | We have this assertion: [Mat 1:25 KJV] (25) And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. coupled with the assurance to Joseph: [Mat 1:19 KJV] (19) Then Joseph her husband, being a just [man], and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily. | |
| Jan 2, 2021 at 2:02 | comment | added | matt2048 | What if he wanted to show that she was a virgin before conception, but wasn't intending to communicate a virgin conception? I mean, the only part in the text where she is called a virgin is before the conception occurs. | |
| Jan 2, 2021 at 1:50 | history | answered | Ruminator | CC BY-SA 4.0 |