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Jun 4, 2021 at 7:42 history bounty ended Tiago Peres
Jun 4, 2021 at 6:00 comment added Dottard @TiagoMartinsPeres李大仁 - I agree so I have updated the entry significantly.
Jun 4, 2021 at 6:00 history edited Dottard CC BY-SA 4.0
Further explanation
Jun 4, 2021 at 5:16 comment added Tiago Peres I agree with @Lucian that the statement, if justified somehow, would make the answer better. Even if that means adapting the wording to accomodate in it the NT passages the answer already mentions
May 29, 2021 at 18:40 history edited Tiago Peres CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 4 characters in body
Aug 19, 2020 at 22:30 comment added Lucian It is the duty of the answer-posters to provide the reader with explanations or references for the various non-trivial statements contained within their answer.
Aug 19, 2020 at 22:22 comment added Dottard @Lucian - what data do you have?
Aug 19, 2020 at 6:32 comment added Lucian the priesthood was was almost universally monogamous - Was it ?
Aug 19, 2020 at 6:10 comment added Dottard @AndersonKate - Deut 17:17 is not taking MANY wives. But what number turns few into many?
Aug 19, 2020 at 5:02 comment added Anderson Kate Hmm. I'm not so sure the Lord is necessarily telling David to ask Him for more wives/women, especially considering Deuteronomy 17:17. Perhaps it's more having to do with riches/things regarding the kingdom he was given.
Aug 19, 2020 at 2:50 comment added Dottard @AndersonKate - you may be correct. If a man divorced his wife (it was illegal for the woman to divorce her husband) she would be destitute except for two alternatives: marry someone else or take up prostitution.
Aug 19, 2020 at 2:46 comment added Anderson Kate Thank you @Dottard. Do you think for that time, God was more permissive because the women would be left destitute? I think a lot of women in this age would feel hurt thinking they aren't enough for their husband's. I think that's why I'm having a hard time with the wording in this passage.
Aug 19, 2020 at 2:34 history answered Dottard CC BY-SA 4.0