Timeline for Why does Mary Magdalene refer to Jesus as "my Lord"?
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| Jul 24, 2020 at 21:55 | comment | added | user35499 | @Margolis. Your learning of those subjects will depend on your discipline, hunger for learning the truth and your willingness to examine the answers to your questions. Do the answers/responses definition of God lines up with the definition given us by Jesus. Did Jesus approved the idea that God is 3 persons. Your decision as to which of those "Gods" is the God of the Bible will affect your understanding of who Jesus is . Have courage too. The "church" has a history of persecuting and even killing any who dare to question its dogmas. | |
| Jul 24, 2020 at 12:40 | comment | added | Margolis | Would it be fair to say we have now left the arena of hermeneutics per se and have entered that of theology and doctrine? As I am new to this forum, please instruct me as to the best way to continue an exploration of the forms of the Greek "Kyrie" and the Hebrew "Adonai" and how they are related. I would like to know more about those words, but I don't want to get into a doctrinal dispute as to the nature of Christ. | |
| Jul 23, 2020 at 17:02 | comment | added | user35499 | The idea that there is more than one YHWH is not scriptural. The YHWH of scriptures is numerically one. | |
| Jul 23, 2020 at 16:36 | comment | added | Margolis | I am still confused about the use of various forms of Kyrie to translate various forms of adonai (pardon me for any misspellings as I have no knowledge of either Hebrew or Greek). So, Alex, are you saying that there are no references in the NT to Jesus using a form of Kyrie that translates the form of adonai used in Hebrew as a substitute for YHWH? | |
| Jul 23, 2020 at 13:38 | history | edited | user35499 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jul 23, 2020 at 11:11 | history | answered | user35499 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |