Timeline for Where did the idea that the law was administered through angels come from?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 29, 2013 at 19:45 | comment | added | hannes | Had I had a better answer, I would have given it. It may not help either but the Septuagint renders the elohim in psalm 8, 6 as angeloi, angels, and it is a translation by Jewish scribes. | |
| Apr 29, 2013 at 13:28 | comment | added | hannes | We see that even human judges are called god/s (elohim) within the law and then this is affirmed in the Psalms (82) and by Jesus. The Law itself does not - as far as I see - not explicitly say that. Only in the first encounter this likeness of the Angel with God is established. Moses does not repeat himself. It is not ours to emphasize distinctions where God does not. | |
| Apr 29, 2013 at 13:15 | comment | added | hannes | It was I believe an appearance of God like the one in Ex 3, where Moses only mentions once (v.2) that it is the Angel who speaks to him. Nevertheless he, Moses and speaks like to the God. God is one with the Angel. | |
| Apr 29, 2013 at 5:35 | comment | added | hannes | The only answer I can see is that God never spoke to humans but through His Mighty Angels. This is why the appearance of the first (and by this singular) Son of God was so unique, even though his coming was in mortality like our own. Giving the Law to Israel and appearing to Moses was by God but thr Angels carried it out. God lives in unattainably bright light. | |
| Apr 28, 2013 at 15:54 | history | edited | hannes | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
few corrections
|
| Apr 28, 2013 at 13:57 | history | answered | hannes | CC BY-SA 3.0 |