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Jul 30 at 6:26 comment added FelixLXX Doesn't the fact Matthew's writing in Greek (or Hebrew then translated) show the influence of Greek thought? It's not that the use of pattern doesn't, or that this question deserves a trite answer. My point is that if Matthew 12:33-37 is brought as evidence to a question of the author's thought, it's too small an exhibit not to be drowned out by the author's language(s). Before checking if the exhibit fits in to the history of ideas, it first needs to be shown it's not isolated. "Do these twenty similar examples fit into the development of Jewish literature" would seem more askable.
Jul 30 at 2:03 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Jun 30 at 1:30 answer added RaySolva timeline score: 1
May 3, 2020 at 23:58 history asked MarkAurelius CC BY-SA 4.0