Timeline for Was the word ἐπιούσιον used prior to the Lord's prayer? What does it mean?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
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| Mar 2, 2013 at 2:27 | comment | added | Joseph | Jon - the "דְּבַר־יֹום" in Exodus 16:4 literally means "daily word" but the context was manna. (It therefore cannot stem from a Greek source "Q".) This bread of the day is God's revelation from heaven, whether manna, God's word, or God's son. When Jesus replied to the devil with Scripture, he was not relying on "Q" but on the Torah, which Jesus said had correlated the "daily bread" with God's word. Also, thank you for the +1 - it was an encouragement to bring me back to zero and "break even". | |
| Mar 1, 2013 at 18:02 | comment | added | Jon Ericson | I like where you are going with this answer (so +1), but I think you need to make clear right from the start that you are assuming "daily bread" and not some other meaning is correct. The point of this question is that the translation of this word is tricky because Matthew, Luke, or their common Greek source (Q) invented it. Nobody had thought to compile dictionaries, so we need to find how the word is used elsewhere to know what it means. But it's unique to the Gospels! | |
| Mar 1, 2013 at 4:09 | comment | added | Joseph | Okay, team, please read my addendum above. I hope that the addendum clarifies. Very Respectfully, Joseph. | |
| Mar 1, 2013 at 4:09 | history | edited | Joseph | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Mar 1, 2013 at 3:15 | comment | added | Dan | I'm interested in how he came to that meaning. Please share the process of how these conclusions were made - particularly the meaning of the word itself. I'm not following the logic in this response.... | |
| Feb 28, 2013 at 8:37 | comment | added | user862 | He didn't cite any authorities on its meaning, so are we to take his word? He simply assumed "daily" is the correct meaning and went from there. That's not how it works. | |
| Feb 27, 2013 at 5:30 | history | answered | Joseph | CC BY-SA 3.0 |