Timeline for Is the statement about love and obedience in John 14:15 an imperative or an indicative?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
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| Feb 20, 2013 at 21:41 | vote | accept | Soldarnal | ||
| Feb 20, 2013 at 17:46 | comment | added | swasheck |
+1. The "aorist active imperative reading (τηρήσατε)" has a wider geographic distribution of attestation which may be the rationale behind the change. At any rate, the subjunctive introduces a degree of uncertainty, and may have greater governance over the entire clause. Ergo, the imperative can't be evaluated in a vacuum but as subordinate to the subjunctive. Theologically (Christian) it makes more sense for ἀγαπᾶτέ to govern, because otherwise the passage would read, "You MUST keep my commandments if you might love me."
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| Feb 19, 2013 at 23:38 | comment | added | Dan | @H3br3wHamm3r81 I removed it, good catch. | |
| Feb 19, 2013 at 23:38 | history | edited | Dan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Removed reference to John 15:10
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| Feb 19, 2013 at 23:37 | comment | added | Dan | Good point, I should probably remove that reference. It is not a direct correlation. | |
| Feb 19, 2013 at 23:30 | comment | added | user862 | To all in general, as you noted, τηρήσητε is indeed in John 15:10, but it's in the protasis, not apodosis. | |
| Feb 19, 2013 at 23:20 | history | edited | Dan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
fixed committee stuff
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| Feb 19, 2013 at 23:09 | history | edited | Dan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Added note on subjunctive mood
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| Feb 19, 2013 at 22:47 | history | answered | Dan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |