In Leviticus 24:11-23 we have a case inserted within a legal dialogue. The Son of a foreign man and an Israelite woman profaned God's Name and (it seems that because of His status as a foreigner) they didn't know what's to do with him. So God gave a ruling through Moses that the same law applies to Israelite and non-Israelite who dwelled in the land (v22).

Why was the death penalty prescribed for this case? And, why does it seem that no offer of atonement was extended to this foreigner?

In Leviticus 24:11-23 we have a case inserted within a legal dialogue. The Son of a foreign man and an Israelite woman profaned God's Name and (it seems that because of His status as a foreigner) they didn't know what's to do with him. So God gave a ruling through Moses that the same law applies to Israelite and non-Israelite who dwelled in the land (v22).

Why was the death penalty prescribed for taking God's Name in vain? And, why does it seem that no offer of atonement was extended to this foreigner?

In Leviticus 24:11-23 we have a case inserted within a legal dialogue. The Son of an Israelite profaned God's Name and they didn't know what's to do with him. So God gave a ruling through Moses that the man should be stoned to death.

Why was the death penalty prescribed for this case?

In Leviticus 24:11-23 we have a case inserted within a legal dialogue. The Son of a foreign man and an Israelite woman profaned God's Name and (it seems that because of His status as a foreigner) they didn't know what's to do with him. So God gave a ruling through Moses that the same law applies to Israelite and non-Israelite who dwelled in the land (v22).

Why was the death penalty prescribed for this case? And, why does it seem that no offer of atonement was extended to this foreigner?

In Leviticus 24:11-23 we have a case inserted within a legal dialogue. The Son of a foreigner profaned God's Name and (it seems that because of His status as a foreigner) they didn't know what's to do with him. So God gave a ruling through Moses that the same law applies to Israelite and non-Israelite who dwelled in the land (v22).

Why was the death penalty prescribed for this case? And, why does it seem that no offer of atonement was extended to this foreigner?

In Leviticus 24:11-23 we have a case inserted within a legal dialogue. The Son of an Israelite profaned God's Name and they didn't know what's to do with him. So God gave a ruling through Moses that the man should be stoned to death.

Why was the death penalty prescribed for this case?