Timeline for In 1 John 1:1 should it read "the word of life" or "the living message"?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| Mar 27, 2019 at 1:22 | history | edited | user25930 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Fuller explantion added
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| Mar 12, 2019 at 14:46 | comment | added | Ruminator | Just a reminder that the question is the proper rendering of 1 John 1:1 "τοῦ λόγου τῆς ζωῆς". | |
| Mar 12, 2019 at 14:19 | comment | added | Ruminator | While Christ was and accomplished many other things, of course, I think all that the assertion of John 1:18c claims is that Jesus communicated God's true nature (since we can't see God). This, I think should be considered the background of John 14:9 and the current verse, 1 John 1:1: Jhn 14:10 NLT - 10 Don't you believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words I speak are not my own, but my Father who lives in me does his work through me. Jesus claims that neither his words nor works are his own, just expressions of the Father (his/our God). | |
| Mar 12, 2019 at 11:02 | comment | added | user25930 | That is correct but the meaning is much more than "communicate" - it means to go into great detail not merely communicate, although one cannot go into great detail without communicating. | |
| Mar 12, 2019 at 10:11 | comment | added | Ruminator | Hence, the origin of our word "exegete". So again, communication. | |
| Mar 12, 2019 at 6:19 | comment | added | user25930 | The Greek word is ἐξηγήσατο (exēgēsato) from the root word ἐξηγέομαι (exégeomai) is either (from BDAG) (1) "to relate in detail, tell report, describe", OR, (2) "to set forth in great detail, expound". Hence ESV & BLB: "made him known"; NASB: "has explained him"; CSB: "has revealed him"; etc. | |
| Mar 12, 2019 at 0:40 | comment | added | Ruminator | Do the lexicons suggest "has revealed" or "made him known"? "Revealed" would be "apocaluptw" or "efaneraw" (sp?) or something I should think. Not sure off the top of my head about "made him known". | |
| Mar 12, 2019 at 0:37 | comment | added | Ruminator | Are you saying that "Logos" is untranslatable and so should only be transliterated? It seems to me that a better way to understand it is not that it is "Biblish" (sacred language that doesn't behave English rules or conventions) but simply to recognize that the communication is personified (because he is God's living expression). In Romans 6, for convenience I will indicate that "sin" is being personified in the text by putting "[Mr.] before the word. | |
| Mar 11, 2019 at 22:31 | history | answered | user25930 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |