Timeline for In Genesis 1:31, what does “very good” mean?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 12 at 23:46 | comment | added | Biff | I don't disagree. But the sentence "But the will of man is not free of its need for God's grace", is an oxymoron. If you have freewill, then how are you not free? The will of man depends on what he wills, not what he needs. This is why scripture says to choose, choose grace, choose life. We can see today everyone needs these things but few are willing to choose those things. Man is not free from the need of God's grace, but his will is free of it if that is what he wants. | |
| Oct 12 at 17:37 | comment | added | C. Stroud | @Biff I see "free-will" as the freedom to choose. But how do we use this freedom? What factors are there that determine how we use it? Having , or not having the gift of faith, given in God's grace, is surely a determining factor as per Eph 2:8. ["and this is not your own doing"]. | |
| Oct 10 at 22:19 | comment | added | Biff | @ C. Stroud - I am not sure that the need for God's grace should be a part of free will. That would be linking desire with necessity, or wants with needs. They are very different. People themselves do need God's grace and gifts, but that doesn't have anything to do with what they will. Many will to not have them even though they need them. | |
| Jun 22, 2021 at 12:10 | comment | added | C. Stroud | You say, "Having a free will". But the will of man is not free of its need for God's grace, strength and enabling if it is to obey Him. If God withheld His grace to Adam to demonstrate this- then disobedience to God does not prove man had free will. | |
| Nov 17, 2018 at 18:20 | review | First posts | |||
| Nov 19, 2018 at 11:51 | |||||
| Nov 17, 2018 at 18:15 | history | answered | Rebecca Pinto | CC BY-SA 4.0 |