Timeline for John 10:33 — Nominative vs. Accusative Nuance (θεος / θεον)
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Apr 11, 2018 at 5:53 | comment | added | Ruminator | Also the juxtaposition of "being [a] man" lends itself to "make yourself [a] god", no? In fact, the following verses seem to demand the idea that he is claiming to be "a god" (though he actually claims to be the son of [the] God): Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? Joh 10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Joh 10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? | |
Apr 11, 2018 at 4:47 | comment | added | Ruminator | It seems to me though that Wallace is hedging his bets a bit by saying that it, the construction, leans toward or tends toward being less definite and more about quality. He doesn't seem to rule out the possibility. However, to my mind the absence of a definite article makes it much more likely that he has quality in mind. But again, I'm no expert | |
Apr 11, 2018 at 4:15 | comment | added | Susan | Please do let me know if I've completely misunderstood the question.... | |
Apr 11, 2018 at 4:15 | history | answered | Susan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |