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Aug 20, 2018 at 12:39 history notice added Caleb Needs detailed answers
Aug 20, 2018 at 6:55 review Low quality posts
Aug 20, 2018 at 12:40
Jan 29, 2018 at 23:47 comment added Federico Calderon Pretty much Israel was the administrator of the gospel during their dispensation and they were always commanded to "Prophesy" to the gentile nations. I'm not even sure why you make an issue about the message of Daniel (in Western Aramaic, Chaldean) was for the Gentiles.
Jan 29, 2018 at 23:44 comment added Federico Calderon Daniel, as you'd put it "prophesied" while at the Chaldean empire being the highest ranking official of the State Department, and Nebuchadnezzar converted to Daniel's faith.
Jan 29, 2018 at 23:39 comment added Federico Calderon Source was stated: Lt Cl Robert B Thieme Sources: Doctrine of the Dispensations; Doctrine of Inspiration; Doctrine of the 5th cycle of discipline; Doctrine of the Mistery, among others. Some ancient History Some Isagogics, etc. Daniel was actually living in a gentile nation, and by the way, there is a whole chapter of Daniel written by a gentile King, who claims his message is "unto all people, nations, and languages, that dwell in all the earth" Daniel became a high ranking official of the Chaldean empire (gentile nation) and Daniel later on became #1 in the Median Persian Empire.
Jan 29, 2018 at 10:09 comment added user17080 This is a very "telegraphic" answer. It would be better to write an answer in complete English sentences, citing your sources and explaining a bit about who they are and what the basis is for the theory that the Aramaic sections are for the gentiles. What evidence is there that the author of Daniel was interested in or commanded to prophesy to the gentiles?
Jan 29, 2018 at 8:31 review Late answers
Jan 29, 2018 at 10:09
Jan 29, 2018 at 8:16 review First posts
Feb 1, 2018 at 10:55
Jan 29, 2018 at 8:11 history answered Federico Calderon CC BY-SA 3.0