Timeline for In 1 John 4:8 which Greek word is used for "love" and what kind of "love" does that indicate?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 25, 2021 at 20:02 | comment | added | Ruminator | Related: quora.com/What-is-love-with-God/answer/Bill-Ross-22 | |
| May 24, 2018 at 3:06 | history | edited | Ruminator | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Answered the question
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| Sep 28, 2017 at 18:09 | comment | added | Joseph O. | I concur with Ruminator's comments here. The classic example of this is that Amnon had agape love for Tamar (2 Sam. 13:4, 15 LXX)...and then he raped her. | |
| Sep 28, 2017 at 14:54 | comment | added | Ruminator | The secular usage of ἀγάπη will not tell you what John had in mind. | |
| Sep 28, 2017 at 14:52 | comment | added | Ruminator | I believe your research will lead you to find that the Greek language cannot answer your question as the CS Lewis paradigm does not hold up in actual usage. Language is not as logical as is Lewis. At least that is what I've found. Perhaps I'll have the energy to address the incorrect view of what John had in mind at another time. Right now I have something else on my plate. Scholars agree that NT usage is unique and have imbued the language with a new, unprecedented meaning and that meaning is as John describes in the passage I cited. | |
| Sep 28, 2017 at 14:38 | comment | added | Onorio Catenacci | You've lost me; "love" in picture form? I'm asking this question because as far as I know in Koine there were several words which translate as "love". I was asking which specific word the original text uses and what that may imply. I think @rhetorician is far closer to the mark. I am assuming that 1 John was written in Koine. | |
| Sep 28, 2017 at 6:09 | review | Low quality posts | |||
| Sep 29, 2017 at 11:03 | |||||
| Sep 28, 2017 at 5:44 | history | answered | Ruminator | CC BY-SA 3.0 |