Timeline for What does "the flesh" mean in 1 John 4:2
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
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| Jun 17, 2020 at 9:51 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
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| Aug 23, 2017 at 9:29 | answer | added | Gina | timeline score: 1 | |
| Aug 23, 2017 at 6:47 | comment | added | Cannabijoy | @4castle Hey thanks for looking that up. The KJV did give us a lot of expressions we still use today. It looks like the NWT also uses the article. Maybe it's just a traditional thing? | |
| Aug 23, 2017 at 6:29 | comment | added | castletheperson | It looks like the idiom may have started in 1865, so there's probably a different reason the KJV translated it that way, and then it later became an idiom by being an allusion to Jesus. Interesting! | |
| Aug 23, 2017 at 6:13 | comment | added | Cannabijoy | @4castle Hmm, maybe. I wonder if this idiom was used when the KJV was written. | |
| Aug 23, 2017 at 6:05 | comment | added | castletheperson | The phrase "in the flesh" is a fairly common English idiom, so perhaps it's just a convenient translation? | |
| Aug 23, 2017 at 5:57 | history | asked | Cannabijoy | CC BY-SA 3.0 |