3 Clarify
source | link

Would not the dative translation "by" serve 1 cor 14:2 better than the word "unto"? In 1 cor 14:21 and Acts 2:11 it can be seen that contrary to contemporary transations of 1 cor 14 2, God the one who speaks in a tongue does speak "to" mankind "with" or through peopleman.

Would not the dative translation "by" serve 1 cor 14:2 better than the word "unto"? In 1 cor 14:21 it can be seen that contrary to contemporary transations of 1 cor 14 2, God does speak "to" mankind "with" or through people.

Would not the dative translation "by" serve 1 cor 14:2 better than the word "unto"? In 1 cor 14:21 and Acts 2:11 it can be seen that contrary to contemporary transations of 1 cor 14 2, the one who speaks in a tongue does speak "to" man.

2 Addition
source | link

Would not the dative translation "by" serve 1 cor 14:2 better than the word "unto"? In 1 cor 14:21 it can be seen that God gives this gift and speakscontrary to uscontemporary transations of 1 cor 14 2, God does speak "to" mankind "with" or through people..

Would not the dative translation "by" serve 1 cor 14:2 better than the word "unto"? In 1 cor 14:21 it can be seen that God gives this gift and speaks to us "with" or through people..

Would not the dative translation "by" serve 1 cor 14:2 better than the word "unto"? In 1 cor 14:21 it can be seen that contrary to contemporary transations of 1 cor 14 2, God does speak "to" mankind "with" or through people.

1
source | link

Would not the dative translation "by" serve 1 cor 14:2 better than the word "unto"? In 1 cor 14:21 it can be seen that God gives this gift and speaks to us "with" or through people..