Timeline for What is the significance of using ἀγάπησιν rather than agapao in the Septuagint?

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

11 events

when toggle format	what		by	license	comment
Apr 7, 2017 at 15:37	history	edited	Revelation Lad	CC BY-SA 3.0	added 22 characters in body
Apr 7, 2017 at 14:32	history	edited	Susan	CC BY-SA 3.0	trimmed English to match Greek
Apr 7, 2017 at 4:53	history	edited	Revelation Lad	CC BY-SA 3.0	added 3 characters in body
Apr 7, 2017 at 4:48	history	edited	Revelation Lad	CC BY-SA 3.0	added 504 characters in body; edited title
Apr 7, 2017 at 1:58	comment	added	elika kohen		@RevelationLad - `"Some say ἀγαπάω (agapao) must be understood"` ... I think it would help, contextually, to know who/where this is coming from. They might have an explanation lying around some place.
Apr 7, 2017 at 1:11	answer	added	Susan		timeline score: 5
Apr 6, 2017 at 14:48	comment	added	anonymous2		Why the downvote? This is a perfectly valid question.
Apr 6, 2017 at 12:48	comment	added	fdb		I don't understand how a verb and a noun can "mean exactly the same thing".
Apr 5, 2017 at 19:43	comment	added	Christian Sirolli		Interesting, you asked a different question elsewhere but used the same greek words as the focus. Does the New Testament use of agapao (ἀγαπάω) and agape (ἀγάπη) demonstrate John wrote from Ephesus?
Apr 5, 2017 at 17:30	comment	added	user33515		Very interesting. Is it possible that ἀγάπησίς fell out of use by the time of the New Testament? Perseus shows that the latest use of the word was around 120 BC (Plutarch). The more interesting issue you raise, I think, is that "love" appears as a noun only 32 times in all of the Septuagint (either ἀγάπησίς or ἀγάπη). The same seems to be true of the underlying Hebrew (אַהֲבָה) noun that both words translate - it only appears 34 times.
Apr 5, 2017 at 16:03	history	asked	Revelation Lad	CC BY-SA 3.0