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S Feb 23, 2021 at 15:22 history bounty ended Tiago Peres
S Feb 23, 2021 at 15:22 history notice removed Tiago Peres
Feb 17, 2021 at 18:13 answer added Russell Jay Hendel timeline score: 2
Feb 16, 2021 at 21:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackBibleHerm/status/1361782445021007875
S Feb 16, 2021 at 19:54 history bounty started Tiago Peres
S Feb 16, 2021 at 19:54 history notice added Tiago Peres Improve details
Feb 16, 2021 at 19:50 history edited Tiago Peres
Include moses tavt
Apr 4, 2018 at 16:24 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Mar 5, 2018 at 16:19 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Feb 2, 2018 at 23:01 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Jan 2, 2018 at 15:02 answer added bach timeline score: 2
Jan 2, 2018 at 14:56 comment added bach highly related: hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/20541/…
Jan 2, 2018 at 5:11 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
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Sep 4, 2017 at 0:45 answer added Bob Jones timeline score: -2
Sep 4, 2017 at 0:42 comment added Bob Jones The comma is there in KJV
Dec 3, 2016 at 14:07 comment added Joshua In English, it seems to simply be missing a comma: "Hobab, the son of Reuel a the Midianite, Moses’ father-in-law" In this case "the son of Reuel the Midianite" is an appositive modifying Hobab and "Moses' father-in-law" is referring back to Hobab. But we would need a Hebrew expert to confirm which phrase modifies which in the Hebrew (which is why this is a comment not an answer). I'm just saying in English it looks like they just missed a comma.
Dec 2, 2016 at 8:52 history asked collen ndhlovu CC BY-SA 3.0