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Nov 22, 2017 at 16:22 comment added conceptualinertia @JamesShewey I am sorry that I didn't see this comment until now. The dispute over whether Samaritans have the status of Jews is found all over the Talmud and is implicit in the Mishna. For example, Mishna Niddah 4:1-3 contrasts the purity status of the menstrual blood of Samaritans and Sadducees as compared to non-Jews. See also Niddah 7:3. Some examples in the Talmud are: Baba Kama 38b (stating that Rabbi Meir holds that Samaritans are true converts); Kiddushin 75b (stating that Rabbi Akiva holds that Samaritans are true converts--in contrast with Rabbi Ishmael who holds they are not).
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:47 history edited CommunityBot
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Apr 4, 2017 at 20:08 comment added James Shewey I cited numerous sources to contradict that including Block, Nolland, Ellicott, Meyer, Bensen, Henry, Barnes, Poole, Gill and more. Rabbi Ishmael ben Jose referred to the Samaritans as [gentiles (or dogs)] (christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/2837/…) in the 3rd century AD. I'm not saying your are wrong, but I am saying if you are going to make that claim, I am going to challenge you to cite your source.
Apr 4, 2017 at 18:44 comment added conceptualinertia @JamesShewey It is incorrect that the Samaritan position "was wholly rejected by mainstream Judaism." The Rabbis of the Mishna (the earlier of whom are Jesus' contemporaries) were mainstream and they disputed among themselves as to whether the Samaritans were converts. Jesus may have just been taking a side in that dispute.
Mar 16, 2017 at 15:49 history edited CommunityBot
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Oct 31, 2016 at 22:06 comment added conceptualinertia @Bʀɪᴀɴ Yes. It also would not apply when an Israelite traveled abroad in his dealings with non-Israelites.
Oct 31, 2016 at 22:01 comment added James Shewey Like the expert in the law, you seem to be looking for loopholes of the scope of neighbor. Even if it is limited to Samaritans (which is a stretch to be sure,) they also are considered non-Israelites by those who were Jewish as made clear by many historical sources. Samaria was not even considered to be Israelite land. While the claim was made by the Samaritans that they were converts, this was wholly rejected by mainstream Judaism. This rejection was what Jesus was referencing - not with an emotional argument, but with an appeal to logic and sensibility.
Oct 31, 2016 at 21:59 comment added user6503 @conceptualinertia - So are you saying that if a non-Israelite was traveling through Israel to get to another country, that an Israelite would not be required to "love the traveling stranger as yourself"?
Oct 31, 2016 at 21:53 comment added conceptualinertia @Bʀɪᴀɴ I think that the straightforward understanding of 19:33-34 is that it only applies to a non-Israelite that "dwells with you in your land." There is no indication that this applies to all non-Israelites. Also the very fact that this additional commandment is needed indicates that the stranger was not encompassed in 19:18.
Oct 31, 2016 at 21:50 comment added user6503 @conceptualinertia - Leviticus 19:33-34 explicitly refers to non-Israelites: 33 ‘And if a stranger dwells with you in your land, you shall not mistreat him. 34 The stranger who dwells among you shall be to you as one born among you, and you shall love him as yourself; for you were strangers in the land of Egypt: I am the Lord your God.' The same command to love your neighbor as yourself is commanded here, to love the stranger dwelling among you as yourself. You even mention this in your question.
Oct 31, 2016 at 20:03 comment added conceptualinertia 3) I think Jesus' response might be limited to Samaritans. We find in 2 Kings, Chapter 17, that the Samaritans converted to the Israelite faith out of fear of lions sent by the Lord. There was a dispute among the rabbis of Mishna (and therefore likely among the earlier Pharisees) if the Samaritans (or Cuthites) were to be considered proper converts (and therefore Jewish) or not. Thus Samiritans, although despised, had a unique claim as converts to being included in Love Your Neighbor in a way that others did not. Jesus, may very well have been saying that Samaritans have the status of Jews.
Oct 31, 2016 at 19:48 comment added conceptualinertia A couple of points: 1) this doesn't answer whether it applies to non-neighboring nations. 2) Jesus' argument isn't textual it is more emotional, I am looking for something more evidence-based. I have an additional, more lengthy comment that I will post later.
Oct 31, 2016 at 17:52 history edited user6503 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 31, 2016 at 17:33 history answered James Shewey CC BY-SA 3.0