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Dec 14, 2023 at 21:48 comment added Dan Fefferman +1 I upvoted this answer despite its lack of references because it shows serious thought. But I prefer to think of the young woman as Isaiah's bride (the prophetess of ch. 8) rather than being unmarried. Whether she is already pregnant or not, it is clear that the original meaning of the prophecy was fulfilled in the time of King Ahaz, to whom it was given as a sign that Judah would not be conquered by the northern alliance of Israel and Syria. Christians should be able to recognize this fact and not feel that it negates the NT version.
Sep 15, 2016 at 0:04 comment added James Shewey Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics SE, thanks for contributing! Be sure to take our site tour to learn more about us. We're a little different from other sites. Our community looks for answers to reflect a good degree of research and references. Typically, we like answers that cite scholarly references and/or explain how your interpretation arises from the text. Don't just tell us what you know, tell us how you know it.
Sep 6, 2016 at 17:37 review Late answers
Oct 8, 2016 at 12:57
Sep 6, 2016 at 17:22 review First posts
Sep 15, 2016 at 0:04
Sep 6, 2016 at 17:19 history answered John CC BY-SA 3.0