Timeline for How is "wicked" and "wickedness" differentiated in Psalm 37:20
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
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| Aug 4, 2016 at 21:39 | comment | added | Cannabijoy | Thank you Susan. This is something I've wondered for a while, so that was a big help. If it's okay to ask (so I don't post another question for the same verse), can יאבדו here mean "are lost"? So that it says "the wicked are lost, but the enemies (hatred, lust, covetousness, ect) of YHVH: like the glory of the pastures, will be consumed; like smoke, will be consumed". It seems "lost" is an acceptable translation for יאבדו, and the Septuagint translates it as ἀπολοῦνται. Also, I have trouble understanding how God can have human enemies, but that's off topic. | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 21:15 | vote | accept | Cannabijoy | ||
| Aug 4, 2016 at 21:09 | comment | added | Susan | @anonymouswho The collective singular is not relevant here; this is, in a way, the converse. As it happens, though, the observation you include above affirms the same principle alluded to in this answer: Hebrew tends to construe verbal number ad sensum (according to the "sense" of its subject) rather than strictly grammatically. In this case, an abstract which is plural in form but singular in "sense" would be expected to have a singular verb. (But it's not. So it doesn't. :-)) | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 13:52 | comment | added | Cannabijoy | I've been searching here: biblehub.com/hebrew/reshaim_7563.htm and I can see several instances where the plural could be replaced with "wickedness", especially considering the poetic style of these verses. "Singular nouns which include in themselves a collective idea, or which occasionally have a collective sense, may readily, in accordance with their meaning, be construed with the plural of the predicate, whether it precedes or follows." Would wickedness be considered an abstract noun that includes a collective idea? Or am I completely missing the point? Thank you Susan. | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 13:11 | comment | added | curiousdannii♦ | Are abstract nouns often feminine? It's a pattern I think I've observed a little. Or maybe that's more in Greek. | |
| Aug 4, 2016 at 8:02 | history | edited | Dɑvïd | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
made explicit whose § it was
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| Aug 4, 2016 at 5:39 | history | answered | Susan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |