Timeline for In Hebrews 9:23, why does the author use the plural “better sacrifices” rather than the singular "better sacrifice"?
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Jan 3, 2017 at 20:22 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jan 2, 2017 at 22:07 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 26, 2016 at 23:28 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | moved from User.Id=862 by developer User.Id=35 | |
Oct 10, 2016 at 16:17 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Sep 16, 2016 at 20:47 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Sep 16, 2016 at 16:35 | comment | added | Revelation Lad | @WoundedEgo There are challenges to interpreting this solely in the context of the Day of Atonement: 1. v5 indicates the writer is not speaking about the Ark or The Mercy Seat. 2. v7 states the priest enters with blood for himself – Jesus was sinless. 3. v12 states Christ entered the perfect tent once for all, not twice as on the Day of Atonement. (This is restated in different ways in both v25 and v28.) 4. v22 indicates there are things under the law not purified with blood 5. There is no basis for conflating blood sprinkled for a covenant and blood sprinkled for purification from sins. | |
Sep 15, 2016 at 19:44 | comment | added | user10231 | So are you saying that he made a blood sacrifice and one or more non-blood sacrifice(s) and the "better sacrifices" is plural because it includes both blood and non-blood sacrifices? If so, ISTM that the context limits the discussion to the two sacrifices of Yom Kippur, hence my down vote. | |
Jul 17, 2016 at 14:07 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jul 17, 2016 at 5:51 | history | answered | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 3.0 |