Timeline for Who is the son of man in Matthew 9:6?
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7 events
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| Jul 21, 2016 at 21:00 | comment | added | Cannabijoy | That's sort of what I'm doing now. A while back I was having a discussion, and the man asked me "When does Yeshua ever say he is the son of man?". So I did a word search, and I found Mathew 16:13. Of course, I quoted the KJV because it's my favorite, but he quickly corrected me because this verse does not say say "...that I the son of man am?", it says "...that the son of man is?" So that got me curious and I continued searching. The only verse I have found that has Yeshua explicitly say he is the son of man is John 9:35, which I've posted a separate question for. | |
| Jul 20, 2016 at 18:30 | comment | added | cegfault | I would encourage you to spend more time looking into the history of "the Son of Man" phrase, as well as research each of the verses themselves. Your logic is coming across as hasty and disjointed. | |
| Jul 20, 2016 at 18:29 | comment | added | cegfault | @anonymouswho: no, that does not seem more reasonable. You're taking the context and language of Matthew 6:14 and trying to force it into ch. 9. The "Son of Man" title is a very well-established fact. There are entire books written on that phrase. I don't think it's wise to ignore the culture or history of that phrase here. Jesus is clearly referring to Himself as the Son of Man. I have never heard of or seen a respected translator say differently. | |
| Jul 20, 2016 at 12:31 | comment | added | Cannabijoy | Hey cegfault. Does it not seem more reasonable that the people rejoiced because such authority had indeed been given to "men", and that Yeshua confirms men have the authority to forgive sins in Matthew 6:14 and John 20:23? Both of these verses say that if "you" forgive men, they "will" be forgiven. Wouldn't this mean that we are the son of man (because every man is the son of man), and we have the authority to forgive sins? | |
| Jul 20, 2016 at 3:50 | comment | added | cegfault | @anonymouswho - that's just what the scriptures say. Jesus is the subject, forgives the man's sin, and then when talking about how He just forgave sins, uses the phrase "Son of Man" instead of "I' - I don't know what you want me to say except that is just simply how the language is written. | |
| Jul 17, 2016 at 6:36 | comment | added | Cannabijoy | Thank you for the answer. I'm about to ask a question about Matthew 16:13. Could you please explain why you said "Jesus refers to Himself as 'the Son of Man..."? Thank you. | |
| Jul 16, 2016 at 23:04 | history | answered | cegfault | CC BY-SA 3.0 |