Timeline for In Matthew 1:21-23, why is Jesus not named "Emmanuel"?
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| Jun 17, 2020 at 9:51 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
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| Jul 12, 2016 at 15:17 | comment | added | Cannabijoy | I tried to answer the question without providing an "opinion". To be honest, I believe the question is similar to asking "Who is the angel in John 5:4?" I don't think Matthew was trying to pull a fast one, because I don't believe Matthew knew anything about a virgin birth. I trust Matthew, but I don't trust the men that added pagan myths to his gospel. | |
| Jul 12, 2016 at 11:12 | comment | added | user10231 | (+1) for getting to the heart of the problem with excellent exegesis. So would you say that "Matthew" was trying to pull a fast one? Or that "fulfill" does not refer to being what the original was talking about but rather in some way "echoing" it? | |
| Jul 12, 2016 at 11:11 | comment | added | Joshua | Except this question is within the context of Matthew, not Isaiah. Everything you say about Isaiah may be correct, but Matthew states it is fulfillment of Isaiah. His understanding of it as Messianic prophecy is already established. There is no arguing it within Matthew. Was Matthew right? Well... That's another question. But why does Matthew seem to think there is a fulfillment even though his given name was Jesus not Immanuel? That's the question as I read it. | |
| Jul 12, 2016 at 10:39 | history | answered | Cannabijoy | CC BY-SA 3.0 |