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Jul 29 at 12:38 answer added Kimberly timeline score: 0
Mar 4, 2021 at 18:53 answer added Travis Bryan III timeline score: 0
Aug 1, 2017 at 4:50 comment added Lucian It is certainly not impossible that Paul's reference might have been allegorical (Galatians 4:24), but the most logical explanation seems to be that he is referencing not the Law directly, but rather Christ's words from Matthew 18:15-17, wherein He quotes the Deuteronomy passage in the context of repeated admonitions made towards a person falling away from the faith, either by sin, or false beliefs. (The second admonition is to include witnesses).
Apr 11, 2016 at 19:05 answer added ScottS timeline score: 9
Apr 11, 2016 at 11:37 comment added Joshua @Marisa you're absolutely right that he is kind of "coining a phrase" from Deut 17, and I wasn't criticizing your question so much as commenting to possible answers. It has been noted correctly how he is not speaking of three people. It's just that I think we have to be careful about attributing too much to this. He is just using it to point out this is the third time he's had to write and at the same time maybe subtly reference Deut to highlight the seriousness. I think it's hypercritical to go further than that.
Apr 11, 2016 at 11:02 comment added Marisa @joshua, my NKJV margin gave a reference to Deut 17:6, so I assumed Paul was quoting from that ... but you're right, he could have been reiterating Jesus' teachings. Though it's still puzzling as to why Paul referred to himself as being 'three witnesses when Jesus meant 2 or 3 different people. Thanks for pointing out Matthew 18:16.
Apr 11, 2016 at 0:29 comment added Joshua Why are we assuming he's referring to Deuteronomy, and not established church discipline rules? That the early church would borrow such a a rule of 2 or 3 would not be unusual, especially considering Jesus' own words in Matthew 18:16?
Apr 10, 2016 at 22:19 answer added Dick Harfield timeline score: 0
Apr 10, 2016 at 16:36 comment added Decrypted I heard that Paul was trained really well in the understanding of the old testament trained by a guy named Gamaliel. Probably why the New Testament bases a lot on his understanding he was able to see the connection between the old and the new.
Apr 10, 2016 at 16:21 comment added Marisa Thanks for the Deut 19:15 Scripture, that answers the second question, any sin is to be established by 2 or 3 witnesses. Hope someone can answer the first question. Cheers Decrypted.
Apr 10, 2016 at 14:46 history tweeted twitter.com/StackBibleHerm/status/719174825483374593
Apr 10, 2016 at 14:14 comment added Decrypted If this help, looks like Jesus wanted things established with two or three witnesses (Matthew 18:16) perhaps (Duet 19:15) will help. Wanted to share some clues, do not really know the answer. It will be interesting to hear other's understanding on this.
Apr 10, 2016 at 11:24 history edited Marisa CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 10, 2016 at 11:16 history asked Marisa CC BY-SA 3.0