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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:47 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/ with https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/
Mar 24, 2017 at 19:31 comment added elika kohen @ScottS - A.) I agree that the Pentateuch / Job may be valid pre-exile historical evidence. B.) However, I feel that a "Plain Reading" of the texts you cite - without the commentary - lead people to very different conclusions. C.) For example, passages relating to exceptional holidays, or the weekly Sabbath Rest may not even be relevant, regardless of interpretation. D.) But, as always - I am only asking for objective, historical evidences - to help inform the interpretations that other people make.
Apr 14, 2016 at 23:36 history edited ScottS CC BY-SA 3.0
Cleaned up some extra unnessary characters and text
Apr 8, 2016 at 21:30 history rollback ScottS
Rollback to Revision 5
Apr 8, 2016 at 21:20 history edited elika kohen CC BY-SA 3.0
Just removing some extra text, and removing lots of > ... Adding formatting to make it a little easier to read.
Apr 7, 2016 at 20:01 history edited ScottS CC BY-SA 3.0
Clarified dusk vs. midnight and Babylonian influence
Apr 7, 2016 at 18:22 comment added Joshua @Susan if I understand correctly, the point is if Scott can demonstrate the pre exilic system is the same as the post exilic, then the only way it is different in the second temple period is if the Sadducees changed it. But the Sadducees generally went by just the Torah, which would suggest they would not have needed to change it if it was the pre exilic Torah's understanding. So while the Sadducees and Pharisees may have disagreed on matters of the yearly calendar , matters of the new moon, etc, they still agreed on the basics of the day.
Apr 7, 2016 at 15:21 comment added ScottS @elikakohen: Your original question was essentially about a transition at night (sunset to sunset) versus day (sunrise to sunrise), and the title still notes the point is "why ... assert ... day began at night"; so the evidence above shows why a "night" transition. However, if I understand your present objection/question, it is now based on a refined view of "when" in the evening (i.e., dusk [traditional Jewish], midnight [Roman], or otherwise). I will work on an edit to clarify that aspect.
S Apr 7, 2016 at 5:41 history suggested user6503 CC BY-SA 3.0
Minor edits to make an awesome answer even more awesome.
Apr 7, 2016 at 1:22 review Suggested edits
S Apr 7, 2016 at 5:41
Apr 6, 2016 at 22:54 comment added ScottS @Susan: Not all date the entire Pentateuch as pre-exilic; note in Dick's answer where he notes some view at least parts of Genesis 1 as post-exile, and I know some view Deuteronomy as post also. Hence why I emphasized agreement on the texts I noted. But you are correct, I read the question as excluding "later" texts (as stated, "to avoid circularity"), but clearly the question is seeking "earliest texts and evidences," and I dare say one is not going to find earlier texts on the matter than Exodus and Numbers, and those clearly existed in 2nd temple period.
Apr 6, 2016 at 22:49 history edited ScottS CC BY-SA 3.0
Added link to Job being early
Apr 6, 2016 at 22:48 comment added Susan (really not trying to argue, I just don't understand what you're saying in relation to my concern) If we all agree the Pentateuch is pre-exilic, how can it provide evidence for what was going on in the 1st C.? (The Q as it stands has a heading "evidences must be in the second temple period, although I realize the point there is to exclude later texts.)
Apr 6, 2016 at 22:42 comment added ScottS @Susan: Also notice that while I do have my own presuppositions about the dating of the text, observe that the two primary passages I use to argue for dating, Exodus 12 and Numbers 33 even Dick's answer notes are pre-Exilic. So my argument supports a pre-Exile dating of sunset to sunset, showing it was not an adoption of Babylonian dating, but an earlier dating system the Hebrews shared with them.
Apr 6, 2016 at 22:36 history edited ScottS CC BY-SA 3.0
Modified conclusion to include revised question
Apr 6, 2016 at 22:33 comment added ScottS @Susan: Apparently the question changed some while I was composing, as I quoted what the question was when I started in my conclusion. It does appear the question has morphed some, but I think the Hebrew Scriptures themselves are still the "earliest" basis for the view, which is still a question asked. I'll edit that revised question in.
Apr 6, 2016 at 22:20 comment added Susan This is impressive, and I admit to not having digested all of it just yet, but unless I'm missing something -- wasn't the question about 1st C. (or at least 2nd temple) practices? Your own presupposition puts these texts long before that. I guess you're assuming things like calendar reckoning did not change? (I have no knowledge in this area, but Dick's answer seems to indicate that this did change, and I see no reason to dismiss that out of hand.)
Apr 6, 2016 at 21:07 history answered ScottS CC BY-SA 3.0