Timeline for "Command ye Me"...What is the proper context and interpretation for Isaiah 45:11?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Feb 15, 2016 at 18:47 | vote | accept | Steven | ||
| Feb 15, 2016 at 18:47 | |||||
| Feb 11, 2016 at 19:41 | comment | added | Dick Harfield | Second Isaiah was expressing gratitude on behalf of himself, the returning Jews and God, in the best way he could - by saying what he felt God would have said to Cyrus. Hence this was a rhetorical statement from Second Isaiah, not a literal statement from God. It is also rhetorical because 2 Isaiah knows that Cyrus will never really command God and that, even if he does, God can choose to ignore him. It would be like a master offering to let a favoured servant command him on a particular occasion, knowing that he is still in charge. | |
| Feb 11, 2016 at 19:01 | comment | added | Steven | Thanks Mr. Harfield, could you expound a little more on this statement from your post, "Cyrus can issue commands for the Jews to follow, and it is a form of rhetoric for God to ask whether Cyrus will also command him." I'm not quite certain I grasp what the significance is in God "rhetorically" asking his servant Cyrus if he (Cyrus) would command him. | |
| Feb 10, 2016 at 1:07 | history | edited | Dick Harfield | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
clarification of Rashi's analysis
|
| Feb 9, 2016 at 21:32 | history | answered | Dick Harfield | CC BY-SA 3.0 |