Timeline for What does Genesis 1:2 Mean? [duplicate]
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
16 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 20, 2015 at 15:27 | history | closed |
ThaddeusB James Shewey Paul Vargas curiousdannii♦ Jonathan Chell |
Duplicate of Is this a contradiction in the first sentence of Genesis 1? | |
| Sep 15, 2015 at 14:44 | review | Close votes | |||
| Sep 20, 2015 at 15:27 | |||||
| Sep 9, 2015 at 22:58 | comment | added | James Shewey | That portion of the question might be better suited on the Christianity.SE if you are really looking for an answer to it. | |
| Sep 9, 2015 at 22:29 | history | edited | Dan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
removed request for reconciliation with isaish passage and second question
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| Sep 9, 2015 at 22:28 | comment | added | Dan | Be sure to check out what makes us different from other sites that study the biblical texts. I've edited this question to ensure it is not closed as off-topic. | |
| Sep 9, 2015 at 22:27 | comment | added | Dan | If the question was focused on the Isaiah text in reference to how it may have been influenced by the earlier Genesis text, that would be fine. But asking how to reconcile a text with another that was written much later is anachronistic for our purposes. | |
| Sep 9, 2015 at 22:25 | comment | added | Dan | The reconciliation of this passage with a passage in Isaiah is out of scope (the only reason they would need to be 'reconciled' is theological in nature, and thus does not start from the Genesis text itself within its original context. The second question is really a separate question all by itself, and may be unanswerable from the text itself (purely speculative) | |
| Sep 9, 2015 at 22:24 | history | edited | Dan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
removed request for reconciliation with isaish passage
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| Sep 9, 2015 at 22:05 | answer | added | James Shewey | timeline score: 2 | |
| Sep 9, 2015 at 16:52 | comment | added | Dr.Apell | Ok so based on your logic if you use a translation that the earth became waste and void ... does that mean God created the earth and then it became waste and void? If so does that not contradict Isaiah 45:18 where the Lord says " i did not create the earth waste and void"? My point is that the "became" might imply that God first created a beautiful earth ..then it became waste and void. That is the beautiful was destroyed. Just like God created man, and then man became of was transformed into a living soul after God breathed into his nostrils. | |
| Sep 9, 2015 at 12:59 | comment | added | Richard | You appear to understand the word 'became' to refer to a process that is unconnected with the original creation as stated in Gen 1:2 (i.e.the result of a subsequent process). However, when we read in Genesis 2:7 that "...the LORD God formed a man from the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living being" we have no difficulty understanding that the word 'became' in that verse means simply 'as a result of' what has just been stated (i.e. God's breathing into his nostrils). | |
| Sep 9, 2015 at 8:57 | review | Close votes | |||
| Sep 10, 2015 at 3:55 | |||||
| Sep 9, 2015 at 8:51 | comment | added | Dr.Apell | I recognize that this question was extensively discussed here:hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/13306/…. But I have a question regarding item # 4 in the best answer. | |
| Sep 9, 2015 at 8:50 | history | undeleted | Dr.Apell | ||
| Sep 9, 2015 at 8:44 | history | deleted | Dr.Apell | via Vote | |
| Sep 9, 2015 at 8:38 | history | asked | Dr.Apell | CC BY-SA 3.0 |