Timeline for Why does Mark use "immediately" so often?
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| Sep 7, 2015 at 9:35 | comment | added | Susan | I don’t have access to the book you refer to, but I’m a little confused by the "abundance of participles" characterization. At least relative to “average” Greek, I think of Mark as more paratactic, to the exclusion of excessive dependent clauses. I wonder (?) if the authors are referring to the periphrastic use of the participle - i.e. after a finite form of “to be” - which works very differently from a normal (subordinating) participle in the syntax of the sentence. | |
| Sep 7, 2015 at 8:28 | history | migrated | from christianity.stackexchange.com (revisions) | ||
| Sep 5, 2015 at 22:44 | history | answered | Dick Harfield | CC BY-SA 3.0 |