Timeline for Should different but synonymous words be translated differently?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
16 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 27, 2017 at 4:17 | vote | accept | cnaak | ||
| Jun 9, 2015 at 22:10 | answer | added | elika kohen | timeline score: 0 | |
| Jun 9, 2015 at 13:32 | answer | added | ScottS | timeline score: 6 | |
| S Jun 9, 2015 at 6:52 | history | suggested | Schuh | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Changing title to reflect the actual question about translating different words, not the example text
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| Jun 9, 2015 at 3:44 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Jun 9, 2015 at 6:52 | |||||
| Feb 8, 2015 at 22:27 | answer | added | Joseph | timeline score: 3 | |
| Feb 8, 2015 at 17:40 | history | edited | cnaak |
Included another tag
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| Feb 2, 2015 at 22:36 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackBibleHerm/status/562379179455676417 | ||
| Feb 2, 2015 at 15:17 | comment | added | cnaak | Understood, ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν is more prone to be translated differently than ἔφη; however that still misses on the seemingly more emphatic/bold/assertive meaning of φημί, clearly rendered in the CLNT: "averred" and not "visible" at all, for instance, in the translations you've listed. | |
| Feb 2, 2015 at 14:59 | comment | added | Susan | Yup, I'm glad we clarified - thank you for your precision. The pleonasm/"double verb formula" I meant here is ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν (וַיַּ֥עַן וַיֹּ֣אמֶר .... or something...my Hebrew isn't so great either). Seems like in Greek usually either one of them is a participle (as here, and zillions of times elsewhere using this expression in Matthew) or else they stick a καὶ between two finite verbs. | |
| Feb 2, 2015 at 14:26 | comment | added | cnaak | Re. Comment character limit prevent me from being clearer. I understood your point (2) as being two-fold: (2a) collapsing of ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν—also noticed and understood; and (2b) εἶπεν (v.4) and ἔφη (v.7) possibly indicating a Hebraic double verb formula (my Hebrew language knowledge is very limited). My comment (2b) refers to this alone. Please, let me know if I misinterpret anything within your point (2). | |
| Feb 2, 2015 at 13:53 | comment | added | Susan |
Re. (1) and (3) - OK. (2b): You doubt what could be the case? That ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν is a formulaic pleonasm reasonably rendered by a single word in English? (See also λέγω III:7 in LSJ for related expressions.) All I was getting at was that doing so here ("replied" or "answered") yields a translation that distinguishes between ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν and φημί (see NIV, ESV, RSV, NRSV, HCSB, NET...). I really wasn't trying to be critical, though. It seems like an interesting question.
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| Feb 2, 2015 at 12:23 | comment | added | cnaak | Thanks. From (1) most transl. could indicate the two diff. verbs being used in the original by transl. λέγω as say and φημί as affirm (thus communicating the nuance of attitude on Jesus part)—and part of the question is why stuff like this seem to be overlooked; (2a) ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν—well pointed! (2b) Interesting point but I doubt this could be the case given two distinct verbs are used in the Greek—perhaps with the exact purpose of ruling this out; (3) Coming back to λέγω is a clear indication of Jesus authority over the tempter, who doesn't need to emphasize his words to send him away. | |
| Feb 2, 2015 at 6:34 | comment | added | Susan | I don't know if there's a difference between φημί and λέγω/εἶπον, interesting. A couple notes: 1) the BDAG entry for φημί; 2) Modern translations apart from the most highly literal usually collapse ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν to 'answered' or some such, not to contrast with φημί but because it's a specific use of λέγω/εἶπον in the (Hebraic?) 'double verbs of saying' formula, somewhat avoiding your conundrum altogether; 3) In v. 10, where one might expect the peak of this ‘escalation’ the narrator reverts to λέγω. | |
| Feb 2, 2015 at 3:39 | history | edited | cnaak | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Final improvements in one paragraph
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| Feb 2, 2015 at 3:28 | history | asked | cnaak | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
