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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:47 history edited CommunityBot
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Dec 6, 2012 at 21:44 history edited Jon Ericson CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 6, 2012 at 21:39 comment added Noah It's too bad really, as an Aramaic version of Q attributed to Matthew (with the current Matthew being a misnomer) would otherwise be a lovely solution which would even agree with patristic testimony. But something like the John the Baptist section really looks like there has to be a Greek source.
Dec 6, 2012 at 21:28 comment added Jon Ericson @Noah Snyder: That's a great point. I've incorporated it into the footnote.
Dec 6, 2012 at 21:28 history edited Jon Ericson CC BY-SA 3.0
Added Noah Snyder's comment.
Dec 6, 2012 at 20:50 comment added Noah On footnote 2, Matthew and Luke agree a lot in Greek, a common Aramaic source does not really explain that.
Sep 20, 2012 at 17:46 comment added Frank Luke There are places where Matthew and Luke agree against Mark. See my answer here under Textual Evidence, #4, #5, and #6.
Apr 14, 2012 at 4:35 vote accept Bruce Alderman
Apr 6, 2012 at 17:59 history answered Jon Ericson CC BY-SA 3.0