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3 changed incorrect UBS like to NA28
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In John MacArthur's Bible Commentary, he says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article so it could be translated "a god" instead of "God." In some Greek texts there is an article, but not in others:

1 Cor 14:2:

Textus Receptus: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ, ἀλλὰ τῷ Θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.

NA28NA28: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ ἀλλὰ θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.

ESV: For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit.

  • Is the article likely original to the letter?
  • If not, is it possible that MacArthur is correct and it should be "a god" instead of "God"?

In John MacArthur's Bible Commentary, he says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article so it could be translated "a god" instead of "God." In some Greek texts there is an article, but not in others:

1 Cor 14:2:

Textus Receptus: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ, ἀλλὰ τῷ Θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.

NA28: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ ἀλλὰ θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.

ESV: For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit.

  • Is the article likely original to the letter?
  • If not, is it possible that MacArthur is correct and it should be "a god" instead of "God"?

In John MacArthur's Bible Commentary, he says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article so it could be translated "a god" instead of "God." In some Greek texts there is an article, but not in others:

1 Cor 14:2:

Textus Receptus: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ, ἀλλὰ τῷ Θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.

NA28: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ ἀλλὰ θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.

ESV: For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit.

  • Is the article likely original to the letter?
  • If not, is it possible that MacArthur is correct and it should be "a god" instead of "God"?
2 edited Q according to comment discussion, added other Greek + English texts/links
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What is the significance of the definite article in 1 Cor 14:2 about definite article?

I'm complete beginner at Greek, but wan't to figure out what is going on with one statement inIn John MacarthursMacArthur's Bible Commentary. He, he says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article so it could be translated "a god" instead of "God. I checked that out and found that" In some Greek texts there is a def.an article and thought he was, but not in error. It saysothers:

1 Cor 14:2:

ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ, ἀλλὰ τῷ Θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια. Textus Receptus: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ, ἀλλὰ - 1 Cor 14τῷ Θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.

NA28:2 ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ ἀλλὰ (Textus Receptus)θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.

ESV: For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit.

But after going back to the text (because I coudn't believe he made such a mistake) I realized that maybe its not an error because τῷ is translated ,,to". Can somebody please explain to me if John is right? Should there be 2 definite articles before God - one translated ,,to" and other ,,the"? Or there is something I'm missing here.

Sorry, I'm idiot at Greek, but want to figure this out. And thanks for help!

  • Is the article likely original to the letter?
  • If not, is it possible that MacArthur is correct and it should be "a god" instead of "God"?

1 Cor 14:2 about definite article

I'm complete beginner at Greek, but wan't to figure out what is going on with one statement in John Macarthurs Bible Commentary. He says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article. I checked that out and found that there is a def. article and thought he was in error. It says:

ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ, ἀλλὰ τῷ Θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια. - 1 Cor 14:2 (Textus Receptus)

But after going back to the text (because I coudn't believe he made such a mistake) I realized that maybe its not an error because τῷ is translated ,,to". Can somebody please explain to me if John is right? Should there be 2 definite articles before God - one translated ,,to" and other ,,the"? Or there is something I'm missing here.

Sorry, I'm idiot at Greek, but want to figure this out. And thanks for help!

What is the significance of the definite article in 1 Cor 14:2?

In John MacArthur's Bible Commentary, he says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article so it could be translated "a god" instead of "God." In some Greek texts there is an article, but not in others:

1 Cor 14:2:

Textus Receptus: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ, ἀλλὰ τῷ Θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.

NA28: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ ἀλλὰ θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.

ESV: For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit.

  • Is the article likely original to the letter?
  • If not, is it possible that MacArthur is correct and it should be "a god" instead of "God"?
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1 Cor 14:2 about definite article

I'm complete beginner at Greek, but wan't to figure out what is going on with one statement in John Macarthurs Bible Commentary. He says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article. I checked that out and found that there is a def. article and thought he was in error. It says:

ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ, ἀλλὰ τῷ Θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια. - 1 Cor 14:2 (Textus Receptus)

But after going back to the text (because I coudn't believe he made such a mistake) I realized that maybe its not an error because τῷ is translated ,,to". Can somebody please explain to me if John is right? Should there be 2 definite articles before God - one translated ,,to" and other ,,the"? Or there is something I'm missing here.

Sorry, I'm idiot at Greek, but want to figure this out. And thanks for help!