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Nov 28, 2014 at 7:04 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackBibleHerm/status/538227018593476608
Nov 25, 2014 at 14:55 vote accept G.Rassovsky
Nov 25, 2014 at 3:23 answer added Joseph timeline score: 1
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:46 comment added G.Rassovsky My assumptions have nothing to do with my question.
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:42 comment added Dan As also pointed out by fdb, using texts by other NT authors to deduce the meaning of this text is methodologically dubious. You can do it here, but you'll need to show work for doing so and support the connections. This is not a religious website - we don't take it as a given that these texts are 'Scripture' nor that they are harmonious. You may, but state this as a presupposition (i.e. define your hermeneutic biases and approach).
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:14 answer added fdb timeline score: 3
Nov 24, 2014 at 18:28 comment added G.Rassovsky Yes, I agree with that and it is confirmed by many places in Scripture, some of which you mentioned. However, I wanted to see why the mistake arises in some translations... (just want to get my facts straight as I am writing an article about it...)
Nov 24, 2014 at 18:21 comment added user6152 I am not familiar with the Greek here, but other NT passages make this clear. Compare 1 Cor 15. Also Acts 2 and Heb 10(?). 'Sit at my right hand until l make your enemies my footstool'. 1C15 makes it clear that Christ will sit until this time, at which point, He will hand the Kingdom back over to the Father. He must sit until, so this passage agrees. The forever musy be with the sacrifices.
Nov 24, 2014 at 17:36 history asked G.Rassovsky CC BY-SA 3.0