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Jun 17, 2020 at 9:51 history edited CommunityBot
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Sep 6, 2014 at 23:50 history edited david brainerd CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 6, 2014 at 23:50 comment added david brainerd @fdb, Yes, of course, and I will edit the answer to reflect that. By "meaning" here I meant like pistis isn't going to mean just "faith" and then pistin mean "faith in biblical inerrancy" as the argument seemed to be.
Sep 6, 2014 at 14:01 comment added fdb "πιστιν is no different in meaning than πιστις." I trust that you realise that they are different case forms (accusative vs nominative) of the same noun. So they are different in "meaning".
Sep 6, 2014 at 5:18 comment added Tau Point Well Taken! ;>)
Sep 6, 2014 at 5:14 comment added david brainerd @user2479, If "active present sense" means something like "will he REALLY find faith" I can agree, and the NKJV puts it that way. What is "faithfulness" if not someone who really has faith rather than just sort of does?
Sep 6, 2014 at 5:10 comment added Tau Thank you for your response! I believe you adequately dealt with the Scofield note(although Hal Linsey and others use it to affirm their belief in pre-trib rapture. Wayne House and Thomas Ice focus on the 'avenge speedily', although it remains to be seen how 'speedily' those with faith are avenged. I still hold to the 'active present sense' these authors use, it's just that their 'justification' for it is the church's departure, something your examination refutes.
Sep 6, 2014 at 5:00 history edited david brainerd CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 6, 2014 at 4:54 history answered david brainerd CC BY-SA 3.0