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1 I've previously argued this at greater length on the "What does it mean for Jesus to fulfill the law?" question herehere

1 I've previously argued this at greater length on the "What does it mean for Jesus to fulfill the law?" question here

1 I've previously argued this at greater length on the "What does it mean for Jesus to fulfill the law?" question here

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Jack Douglas
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Understanding and accepting this framework is the aim of these illustrations. It would be ironic and deeply misguidedironic and deeply misguided to take Jesus words here as merely a new or more strict set of outward observancesmerely a new or more strict set of outward observances.

It is unlikely that the woman is being singled out for condemnation or exonerationThe woman is not being singled out for condemnation or exoneration in this context, and the broader application of the specific command would apply to her in a secondary sense. A contemporary application would need to take account of the culture of the day, for example whether a woman has the legal right to divorce her husband.

This is 'perfection' in the sense of verse 48, not perfect outward obedience, but genuine, inner love and respect for the will of God. Therefore it does not depend on the physical actrighteousness or culpability of divorce;the woman involved does not depend on the physical act of divorce; however it may well be evidenced in a patient and persistent hope of reconciliation after divorce rather than a quest for speedy remarriage.

Understanding and accepting this framework is the aim of these illustrations. It would be ironic and deeply misguided to take Jesus words here as merely a new or more strict set of outward observances.

It is unlikely that the woman is being singled out for condemnation or exoneration in this context, and the broader application of the specific command would apply to her in a secondary sense. A contemporary application would need to take account of the culture of the day, for example whether a woman has the legal right to divorce her husband.

This is 'perfection' in the sense of verse 48, not perfect outward obedience, but genuine, inner love and respect for the will of God. Therefore it does not depend on the physical act of divorce; however it may well be evidenced in a patient and persistent hope of reconciliation after divorce rather than a quest for speedy remarriage.

Understanding and accepting this framework is the aim of these illustrations. It would be ironic and deeply misguided to take Jesus words here as merely a new or more strict set of outward observances.

The woman is not being singled out for condemnation or exoneration in this context, and the broader application of the specific command would apply to her in a secondary sense. A contemporary application would need to take account of the culture of the day, for example whether a woman has the legal right to divorce her husband.

This is 'perfection' in the sense of verse 48, not perfect outward obedience, but genuine, inner love and respect for the will of God. Therefore the righteousness or culpability of the woman involved does not depend on the physical act of divorce; however it may well be evidenced in a patient and persistent hope of reconciliation after divorce rather than a quest for speedy remarriage.

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Jack Douglas
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We need to know how to interpret the entire series of illustrations in Matthew 5:17-48, before we can be confident we are understanding the specifics of verse 32. The illustrations are part of Jesus' explanation of how to interpret the law, and that he has come not to abolish the law but to destroy the evil and false (legalistic, outward) method of interpretation practiced and preached by the scribes and Pharisees:

In the context of a culture of patriarchal society and religion, whether the woman commits or is the victim of adultery, the man who divorces her bears responsibility[2]: any call to obedience must be first be followed by the man who has greater power and responsibility in the marriage.

It is unlikely that the woman is being singled out for condemnation or exoneration in this context, and the broader application of the specific command would apply to her in a secondary sense. A contemporary application would need to take account of the culture of the day, for example whether a woman has the legal right to divorce her husband.

1 I've previously argued this at greater length on the "What does it mean for Jesus to fulfill the law?" question here

2 cf the punishment meted out to Adam despite his attempt to blame Eve (and God) for their transgression

We need to know how to interpret the entire series of illustrations in Matthew 5:17-48, before we can be confident we are understanding the specifics of verse 32. The illustrations are part of Jesus' explanation of how to interpret the law, and that he has come not to abolish the law but to destroy the evil and false (legalistic, outward) method of interpretation practiced by the scribes and Pharisees:

In the context of a culture of patriarchal society and religion, whether the woman commits or is the victim of adultery, the man who divorces her bears responsibility: any call to obedience must be first be followed by the man who has greater power and responsibility in the marriage.

It is unlikely that the woman is being singled out for condemnation or exoneration in this context, and the broader application of the specific command would apply to her in a secondary sense.

1 I've previously argued this at greater length on the "What does it mean for Jesus to fulfill the law?" question here

We need to know how to interpret the entire series of illustrations in Matthew 5:17-48, before we can be confident we are understanding the specifics of verse 32. The illustrations are part of Jesus' explanation of how to interpret the law, and that he has come not to abolish the law but to destroy the evil and false (legalistic, outward) method of interpretation practiced and preached by the scribes and Pharisees:

In the context of a patriarchal society and religion, whether the woman commits or is the victim of adultery, the man who divorces her bears responsibility[2]: any call to obedience must be first be followed by the man who has greater power and responsibility in the marriage.

It is unlikely that the woman is being singled out for condemnation or exoneration in this context, and the broader application of the specific command would apply to her in a secondary sense. A contemporary application would need to take account of the culture of the day, for example whether a woman has the legal right to divorce her husband.

1 I've previously argued this at greater length on the "What does it mean for Jesus to fulfill the law?" question here

2 cf the punishment meted out to Adam despite his attempt to blame Eve (and God) for their transgression

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