Timeline for Psalm 34:20 applied to Jesus' crucifixion
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 11, 2018 at 2:38 | comment | added | Revelation Lad | ...It is not necessary to assume that they refer to a ruling king or monarch. The Messianic king warring with the "nations"—another apocalyptic incident—is central in these psalms. Your statement points to a future event: "according to Rabbi David Kimhi (the "Radak") - refers to bones to describe the entire body because the skeletal structure is the body's mainstay. According to Radak's book Sefer HaBris ...God ensures that a special part of the skeletal structure will remain intact for the righteous after death so that He may use it to resurrect their bodies in the Messianic Age. | |
| Oct 11, 2018 at 2:35 | comment | added | Revelation Lad | The statement Psalms are not prophetic is inaccurate. From the Jewish Encyclodedia (jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/12409-psalms): Synagogal liturgy and strictly regulated Temple ceremonial are productions of the Maccabean and post-Maccabean conflicts. Apocalyptic ecstasy, didactic references to past history, and Messianic speculations point to the same centuries, when foreign oppression or internal feuds led the faithful to predict the coming glorious judgment. The "royal" or "king" psalms belong to the category of apocalyptic effusions... | |
| Mar 25, 2015 at 2:20 | history | bounty ended | CommunityBot | ||
| Nov 9, 2014 at 13:35 | comment | added | Bruce James | @wilberteric: because Christianity has a different answer does not justify a down-vote for a thorougly-sourced answer from the Jewish perspective. If so, I would have to down-vote every Christian answer for which Jewish sources disagree, especially since many of those sources pre-date Christianity. Consider that the Gospels arguably could have been written to add "newly-discovered details" that "fulfilled" prophecy. | |
| Nov 9, 2014 at 12:44 | comment | added | wilberteric | I down-voted your answer because in my best estimation this is a biblical-based Q&A site (both Old and New), and I believe your answer does not reflect the full counsel of scripture. | |
| Nov 9, 2014 at 8:03 | comment | added | Bruce James | @wilberteric It appears that you down-voted my answer b/c it isn't the Chistian answer. The verse had meaning for Jews before Jesus,you should know, and has meaning even for those not desperate for post hac rationalizations. | |
| Nov 7, 2014 at 20:04 | comment | added | wilberteric | It was the will of God that none of Christ's bones were broken, being the Paschal lamb was a type of Christ. The fact that none of His bones were broken demonstrates the truth that Christ's life was not taken by man, but was laid down on His own accord. | |
| Jun 6, 2014 at 17:25 | history | answered | Bruce James | CC BY-SA 3.0 |