Questions tagged [translation-philosophy]

The philosophical basis that grounds the work of translators. Questions about specific translation problems should instead be tagged hebrew, aramaic, or greek as appropriate.

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Can the usage of Θεὸς in Luke 20:38 support the translation of "the Word was God" in John 1:1?

In search of support for the translation of "the Word was God" in John 1:1, I wanted to find a similar usage of Θεὸς - specifically at the beginning of a complete thought and without a ...
another-prodigal's user avatar
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NASB translation of John 4:1

The NASB is supposed to be a very literal translation except where needed and my husband noticed that in john 4:1 it translates the name of Jesus as "Lord"; the ESV doesn't do this and ...
postTenebrasLux.'s user avatar
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How does the NIV translation of Psalm 42:4 arrive at the phrase "under the protection of the Mighty One"?

In Psalm 42:4, the NIV translates the phrase כִּי אֶעֱבֹר בַּסָּךְ, אֶדַּדֵּם עַד-בֵּית אֱלֹהִים as "how I used to go to the house of God under the protection of the Mighty One" while the ...
Zac Aikman's user avatar
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Translation choices for the words "pray" in Acts 7:59 and "appeal" in Acts 25:11

Biblehub shows the word "prayed" in Acts 7:59 used by the New International Version Bible is derived from the Greek ἐπικαλούμενον (epikaloumenon). This is the same word used in Acts 25:11 ...
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Why do many English translations substitute “Merab” for “Michal” in 2 Samuel 21:8?

The Hebrew says: וְאֶת־חֲמֵ֗שֶׁת בְּנֵי֙ מִיכַ֣ל בַּת־שָׁא֔וּל אֲשֶׁ֥ר יָלְדָ֛ה לְעַדְרִיאֵ֥ל בֶּן־בַּרְזִלַּ֖י הַמְּחֹלָתִֽי My translation: and the five sons that Michal daughter of Shaul bore to ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
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According to the Hebrew Gospels of Matt 26:28, Mark 14:24 and Luke 22:19-20, was Jesus’ blood shed FOR many or BECAUSE OF many?

According to the Hebrew Gospels of Matthew 26:28, Mark 14:24 and Luke 22:19-20, was Jesus’ blood shed for many or because of many? The Greek uses peri and huper, and Aramaic S7191 D'aaKhLaaPH and ...
FanieO's user avatar
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Why is Isaiah 9:6 translated in the future tense

In different translations of Isaiah 9:6 we see (emphasis mine): ESV: For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called ...
User2280's user avatar
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Why is Matthew 6:1 rendered "righteousness" in NIV and ESV when Strongs renders it mercy, compassion or alms?

In Matthew 6:1 the word ἐλεημοσύνην is translated as righteousness by both the NIV and the ESV, yet in Strong's concordance or Thayer's the meaning of the word seems consistently closer to "mercy&...
Jared Kirk's user avatar
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2 Thessalonians 2:8-9 - After/According to OR Against the Working of Satan?

The Scripture in Question 2 Thessalonians 2:8-9 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming: [...
Katie Rose Müller's user avatar
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5 answers
1k views

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

There seem to be several interpretations of the admonition of Jesus to the church at Ephesus. Jesus first compliments the church at Ephesus for their labor, their endurance, their not tolerating evil, ...
Dieter's user avatar
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What is the justification for translating James 2:14b as "Can such faith save them?"?

The NSRV translates this verse correctly as … if you say you have faith but do not have works? Can faith save you? James 2:14 A variety of Christian translations render the verse a different way and ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
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Why do translators translate Luke 2:25 and 11:13 as "the Holy Spirit" instead of "a holy spirit"?

The Greek text here unambiguously says “a holy spirit” (pneuma [ēn] hagion) in both of these passages. However it appears that most Christian translations choose a different wording: He was waiting ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
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Do we know why or how translators translated the persons' names the way they did?

For instance, we read the name in the English as Ahab, but the Strong's pronunciation is akh-awb' So in this case, the k sound is missing. Why are certain sounds missing if they are known? Example: ...
Steve's user avatar
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The meaning of "akoe" in Matthew 24:6

Matthew 24:6 says: You will hear of wars and rumors of wars, but see to it that you are not alarmed. Such things must happen, but the end is still to come. (NIV) The word "akoe" is ...
Kidburla's user avatar
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Whats the reasoning behind the "understands" vs "hears" in Acts 22:9 and Acts 9:7?

In Acts 22:9 (NASB): "And those who were with me saw the light, but did not understand the voice of the One who was speaking to me." And Acts 9:7 (NASB): "The men who traveled with him ...
User2280's user avatar
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In 1 Corinthians 8:6, should δι αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς be translated "because of whom we exist" or "through whom we exist"?

1 Corinthians 8:6 ESV translation: yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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Prunes or Cleanses in John 15:1-4 ESV?

Most translations of John 15:1-4 read something like this: “I am the true vine, and my Father is the vinedresser. Every branch in me that does not bear fruit he takes away, and every branch that does ...
Dieter's user avatar
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3 answers
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Is Hosea 13:14, quoted by Apostle Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:55, oddly mistranslated?

Hosea 13:14 from the BSB translation: I will ransom them from the power of Sheol; I will redeem them from Death. Where, O Death, are your plagues? Where, O Sheol, is your sting? Compassion is hidden ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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In Revelation 9:11, should the titles Abaddon and Apollyon be translated into English as "Destruction" and "Destroyer"?

Revelation 9:11 according to ESV translation: They have as king over them the angel of the bottomless pit. His name in Hebrew is Abaddon, and in Greek he is called Apollyon. Revelation 9:11 ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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Neh. 5:2 "We are forced to pawn our sons and daughters in order to get grain to eat that we may live.” (competent translation?)

In the Book of Nehemiah, the NABRE is virtually alone in interpreting the people's complaint about the lack of grain in terms of having to indenture their children. Other typical translations usually ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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1 answer
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Who does God prepare the praise for in Matthew 21:16/Psalm 8:2

When Jesus quotes Psalm 8:2(LXX) in Matthew 21:16(ESV) “‘Out of the mouth of infants and nursing babies you have prepared praise’?” The greek word used for "prepared" is Κατηρτίσω. Who is ...
User2280's user avatar
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What Greek mss (SBLGNT, MGNT and TR) or textual criticism philosophy most influenced main English Bible translations?

Some of the main Greek sources we may use include: SBLGNT MGNT TR (Textus Receptus) Septuagint Others? The _GNT are collections that basically include compilations of most of the same known Greek ...
Jesse's user avatar
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Is there an implication of control/governance in Romans 8:6?

Romans 8:6 in the NIV: The mind governed by the flesh is death, but the mind governed by the Spirit is life and peace. The word translated here as "mind governed by" is the word "...
Kidburla's user avatar
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Genesis 4:5-8. What could Cain have done differently?

Given the understanding that Cain was upset and God tried to reason with Cain to resolve Cain's discomfort, but Cain chose to cause even worse "discomfort" on Abel, how would you have ...
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9 votes
7 answers
452 views

What is the better rendering of colossians 2:14?

What is the better rendering of Colossians 2:14 ? KJV " blotting out the handwriting of ordinances which was against us " ESV " by canceling the record of debt that stood against us ...
user63409's user avatar
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1 answer
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In Psalm 77:10, is Asaph grieving that God's right hand has changed, or is he grieving for the past years of deliverance by God's right hand?

Most translations like the NASB render it as: Then I said, “It is my grief, that the right hand of the Most High has changed.” But does the Hebrew actually say: Then I said, “I grieve for the years ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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1 answer
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Why seriously different translations of Deuteronomy 20:19?

I notice Deuteronomy 20:19 has quite a few different translations. An underlying reason is given in Why so many different translations of Deuteronomy 32:8? as differences in Masoretic and Septuagint ...
Michael's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
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How should we understand “…, the ancient heavens … (NIV, NIVUK)” and why is the translation different in other versions like CJB, NABRE?

Psalms 68:33:- “to him who rides across the highest heavens, the ancient heavens, who thunders with mighty voice.”
Tesfaye Wolde's user avatar
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2 answers
157 views

Are there any white people in the Bible? [closed]

Every few months, a photo of a protestor's sign makes the rounds on social media; the sign says, "There are no white people in the Bible. Take all the time you need with this." Reliably, ...
Corbin's user avatar
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1 answer
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Is "trumpets" plural in some English translations of Psalm 47:5 based on a textual variant?

In Psalm 47:5, the NIV has "God has ascended amid shouts of joy, the Lord amid the sounding of trumpets." The NLT, HCSB, CEV/GNT, and NET all similarly translate "trumpets" in ...
Daniel Ockrin's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
26 views

Exodus 19:13 - come near or go up on the mountain?

Is the meaning of the Hebrew text closer to "go up on the mountain" (e.g. NRSV) or "come near the mountain" (e.g. NKJV)?
whiskey92's user avatar
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4 answers
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What evidence exists that "רְאֵם" ("re'em") is *not* a rhinoceros?

Historic (pre-1800) translations of Scripture translate "רְאֵם" ("re'em") as "unicorn" (KJV), "unicornis" (Vulgate) or "μονόκερως" ("monókerōs&...
Matthew's user avatar
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2 answers
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Judges 16:4 Samson "loved a woman in the valley of Sorek, whose name was Delilah". Did Samson truly love Delilah or was it sexual lust for Delilah?

Judges 16:1 NASB95 Now Samson went to Gaza and saw a harlot there, and went in to her. Judges 16:4 NASB95 After this it came about that he loved a woman in the valley of Sorek, whose name was ...
user1338998's user avatar
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1 vote
0 answers
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Does Amos 6:10 say that the tetragrammaton "is not" to be remembered, or that it "has not" been remembered? [duplicate]

Traditional translations say: "Hush!" And he will say, "For the name of the LORD is not to be called to remembrance." Or does the Hebrew actually say: "Hush!" And he ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
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In Amos 6:10, does the cremator tell the lone survivor to hush up and not mention the name of the LORD?

Does the cremator tell the survivor to hush up and not mention the name of the LORD, or does the survivor continue his response to the cremator's question, telling him that he is the lone survivor ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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3 votes
1 answer
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Is forever literal in Isaiah 9:7?

Isaiah 9:7 (ESV) (emphasis mine): Of the increase of his government and of peace there will be no end, on the throne of David and over his kingdom, to establish it and to uphold it with justice and ...
User2280's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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Does the KJV translate Proverbs 16:1 as having a different meaning than the other translations? If so, which is the correct translation ? And Why? …

The KJV seems to indicate that both the plans in man’s hearts and the answers on their tongues come from the Lord, is this a correct interpretation? Proverbs 16:1 KJV The preparations of the heart in ...
Judah Girl's user avatar
4 votes
4 answers
963 views

What does Hebrews 5:14 mean?

Please explain Hebrews 5:14 in the simplest terms, please. Explain even those by reason of use. What does this mean? Hebrews 5:14 NIV But solid food is for the mature, who by constant use have ...
Bonita Johnson's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
72 views

Is my rendering of Dan.8.11-13;11:31;12:11; concerning the "continual transgression", rather than the "daily sacrifice" an accurate translation?

The translation of (H8548, tamiyd) found in (Daniel 8:11-13; 11:31; 12:11) rendered: “the daily sacrifice”; which has the insertion of the word “sacrifice”. Due to the grammatical links found in ...
ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
114 views

Why is Satan referred to as the tempter the first time he tempts Jesus and then referred to as Satan or the Devil the other two times?

In the desert when Jesus was being tempted while fasting, is there any significance to the writer referring to Satan as the tempter the first time and the Devil the other two times? Matt 4:3 - The ...
Kayla's user avatar
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0 answers
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Can "in the name of Allah", actually be the mark of the beast? [duplicate]

This is where we get the 666 from in the Book of Revelation. Revelation 13:18 (NASB) Here is wisdom. Let him who has understanding calculate the number of the beast, for the number is that of a man; ...
ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
62 views

Why is Iakobos translated as (J)ames

Acts 1:13 When they entered the city they went to the upper room where they were staying, Peter and John and James and Andrew, Philip and Thomas, Bartholomew and Matthew, James son of Alphaeus, Simon ...
I believe I believe's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
131 views

Is "daily sacrifice" (H8548) in Daniel 8:11-13; 11:31; 12:11; an accurate rendering?

When doing a word study of H8548, it speaks of something that is "constantly", in reference to the shewbread, the light of the candles in the holy place, and other references. It seems to be ...
ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory's user avatar
0 votes
3 answers
79 views

What are the implications of Gender-Neutral translations for the practice of Biblical Hermeneutics?

Note: to avoid this becoming a an opinion-based issue, the question seeks only answers based on objective analysis rather than arguments for or against gender-neutral translations. Romans 8:12 RSV - ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
67 views

Confused about “missing” Greek words. Phil 2:7

Are there NT manuscripts “missing” and/or with different Greek words in Philippians 2:7? Specifically, in reference to the word servant? Also note other word variations seen regarding this verse. ...
Rachel's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
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2 Thess. 2:11; Strong's (G1753, energeia) delusion (G4106, plane); planet energy?

Don't know much about the root meaning of words, but is what these words could be referring to, like the lie is associated with planet energy? 2 Thessalonians 2:11 KJV And for this cause God shall ...
ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory's user avatar
-1 votes
1 answer
62 views

Why does Strong's 1510 (εἰμί) have a different translation in the Bible like in John 10:30?

What's your interpretation of εἰμί in John 10:30? He didn't use "are" but instead, He used the "I AM".
Jen Vasquez's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
88 views

Deeper contextual understanding can the bible reader get from Isaiah 34:5 claim that The Lord's sword is "satiated in heaven"

Isaiah 34:5-6 NASB95 5 For My sword is satiated in heaven, Behold it shall descend for judgment upon Edom And upon the people whom I have devoted to destruction. 6 The sword of the Lord is filled ...
user1338998's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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Sarah’s faith and Abraham’s

In Hebrews 11:11, five English translations, one Spanish, one Dutch, and one modern Greek (ESV, NIV, NASB, KJV, NLT, NVI, HTB, FPB) credit Sarah with faith.  But an Italian and a Portuguese give the ...
WGroleau's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
90 views

Does "the apostles" convey something different than "apostles" in the New Testament?

The New Testament regularly refers to a group known as "the apostles", using an article, e.g. οἱ ἀπόστολοι A couple examples: 14 Which when the apostles, Barnabas and Paul, heard of, they ...
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