In Col 1:17, συνέστηκεν is in the perfect tense. However, it seems very common for translations like NIV to treat συνέστηκεν as if it were present in tense:
"He is before all things, and in him all things hold together (συνέστηκεν)."
The NIV here chose to express that the all things are engaged in an ongoing act.
Conversely, συνέστηκεν could be translated more consistently with the perfect tense such as:
"He is before all things, and in him all things have come together (συνέστηκεν)."
Is this a legitimate way to translate the verse?
Had Paul, in the verse, intended to refer not to an ongoing act but instead a completed event such as the peace-making reconciliation of all things that occurred through the blood of his cross in verse 20?
Should our translations more accurately communicate the tense of συνέστηκεν as perfect instead of present in Colossians 1:17 or does the present tense somehow better communicate what Paul was getting at?
Note: Apparently, the plural but neuter "all things" can have a singular verb since, according to ntgreek.net/lesson13.htm, "A neuter plural subject may have a singular verb."