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seen Sep 28 at 6:25

Jan
12
comment Numbers 12:2 Translation issue
Yes, the Masoretes codified their reading tradition sometime around the 8th century CE. Written consonantally (as in the Torah scroll), the two words are identical.
Nov
15
comment What did “ekklesia” mean in the Classical Greek and later the Septuagint, and did the meaning change when it was translated in the KJV bible?
Yep, should have been a comment to begin with! Thanks @Jack Douglas for moving it.
Nov
14
comment What did “ekklesia” mean in the Classical Greek and later the Septuagint, and did the meaning change when it was translated in the KJV bible?
These answers are all great! I'll just add that, as many of you know, this was a particular sticking point in early English translations of the Bible, with reformers like Tyndale charging that not only was the corruption and hierarchy of the Church out of control, but that the Church structure itself was not biblically warranted. Thus they translated ekklesia as "congregation" or "company", implying that any group that met to worship, read Scripture, and receive the Spirit, was keeping with the Gospels' intentions, more so than the High Anglican Church.
Nov
14
comment What did “ekklesia” mean in the Classical Greek and later the Septuagint, and did the meaning change when it was translated in the KJV bible?
When the translators of the KJV met and began the translation work, one of the rules they were given was explicitly that "The ould ecclesiastical words to be kept viz. as the Word Churche not to be translated Congregation &c." (see God's Secretaries, pg. 75). Ironically the word ecclesiastical itself comes from ekklesia... And of course, this issue continues to be argued today.
Sep
27
comment Does Leviticus 19:28 in the original text instruct not to tattoo for the dead or not to tattoo at all?
This is a disingenuous translation (as to be expected from ChaBad)... Just because they use a period there does not help us with answering this question, which asks specifically about the Hebrew of the Biblical text.
Jul
23
comment Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek?
Wow, that's a crazy interview! Sounds pretty out-there conspiracy theory to me, but I have no training in NT studies, so I can't really comment. But sounds pretty unrealistic.
Jul
23
comment Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek?
I'm confused as to what precisely you're referring to — do you have a Jewish source that refers to an evangelion of a Roman military victory? Which military victory are you talking about?
Jul
22
comment Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek?
Exactly! The root of "evangelion" is just the verb ἀγγέλλω angello ("to announce, bring news of") plus the prefix εὐ, "good" or "well". Announcing a victory is certainly good news!
Jun
12
comment Who or what is Rahab in Job?
@BruceJames, parallelism seems to indicate that Rahab is somehow a counterpart to the sea. Substituting "Egypt" makes no sense here... The Jewish Encyclopedia article gives a number of good prooftexts, including Biblical and Talmudic citations, to demonstrate the connection of Rahab and the ocean-serpent and how it also relates to Egypt and the meaning "haughtiness".
Jun
12
comment Who or what is Rahab in Job?
Great answer! Also, just to clarify that the woman's name Rahab is spelt רחב, i.e. with a heth, and so is unrelated to Rahab with a hei.
Jun
2
comment Synthesizing Differing Translations of Proverbs 18:24
Interesting observation! I don't have my BHS handy but maybe there's a manuscript variant?
May
31
comment Synthesizing Differing Translations of Proverbs 18:24
And this pun is apparently what tripped up the KJV translators (and/or Jerome)... Is lehithro‘ea‘ a verb from ra‘, meaning "come to evil", or from rea‘, meaning "to behave in a friendly manner"? The context is not super clear either way but I think the JPS and ESV have it best. [By the way @J.C. Salomon since the last vowel is a patah genuva technically the ‘ayin is pronounced after it l’hithro‘ea‘ rather than l’hithro‘e‘a. Pedantry, I know].
Apr
16
comment Are kruvim also angels?
Who says that Ezekiel 28 is talking about Satan? I don't see any reference to Satan in this chapter.
Apr
8
comment Where is the citation of John 7:38 taken from?
I'm not sure if this is relevant to point out, or if everyone already knows this, but John 7:37 is a quotation from Isaiah 55:1. Is it possible that "as the Scripture has said" is referring back to that previous quotation?
Apr
3
comment Genesis 3:12: What is the underlying Hebrew word translated into English as “with me” (in KJV)?
Well, that's a different situation because the base verb is וַיִּקַח, and so the הָ is clearly a suffix. A mappiq is only used in ambivalent situations as a differentiation to indicate that a final ה is to be pronounced - as in, for example, אַרְצָהּ, "her land", vs. אַרְצָה, "to the land". Joüon does list a few examples of "3rd f. ה without mappiq" as "rare forms with suffixes" but I do not believe this is one of them.
Apr
3
comment Genesis 3:12: What is the underlying Hebrew word translated into English as “with me” (in KJV)?
Just butting in: As far as I know, 'immi and 'immadi are synonymous prepositions from עם, (the root is actually ayin-mem-mem), with a 1s suffix. The dalet is a prolonging form with no semantic value (that I know of) - similar to the energic nun (that gets inserted in forms like mimmeka instead of mimkha). If anything it's possibly for prosodic value, i.e. more syllables. נָתַתָּה is, as noted, the 2ms of n.t.n. "to give". The qametz-he is NOT a 3fs suffix - if so it would have a mappiq (diacritic dot) to indicate that. In this case it is simply a scribal oddity of an extra mater lectionis.
Mar
8
comment What is the difference between ζωὴ and ψυχὴ?
I think some of the Greek words got mixed up... ψυχὴ (psukhe) is what is translated as "soul/person/mind/etc." and refers to our own lives. ζωὴ (zoe) is translated as "life/living" and refers to the concept of life itself.
Feb
7
comment Why did the tabernacle use the colors blue, purple and scarlet?
As it turns out, yes, @MonicaCellio, we do have some archaeological evidence of overdyeing in Biblical Israel. Dr. Zvi Koren (an expert on ancient Near Eastern textiles) briefly discusses a garment with a stripe of "purple" produced by overdyeing first with madder and then woad (picture on pg. 172, discussion on pg. 174): edelsteincenter.files.wordpress.com/2010/07/… But that is not argaman, even if it might have approximately the same colour... Later in the article he discusses a fabric found at Masada dyed with actual argaman purple, pp. 184-186.
Feb
7
comment Why did the tabernacle use the colors blue, purple and scarlet?
Oh, now I feel guilty! But leaving my feelings aside, I think you're right. The point that I was trying to make was that when we think of "blue", we're thinking of the generic colour. But "tekheleth" is not a colour, it's a specific material dye made in a specific way (in this case, from the Murex trunculus shell). Same with argaman and shani. In our minds, "purple" is made from "red" and so they are related in that way; but argaman is not made from shani, so we really have to think about each "colour"/dye on its own terms, and then how they are related to each other in Biblical usage.