1,067 reputation
27
bio website
location
age
visits member for 1 years, 3 months
seen yesterday

Mar
21
answered Calculation of date from Genesis 7:11
Mar
10
answered Why is Job referred to by the feminine pronoun in Job 1:15?
Feb
6
awarded  Revival
Jan
12
comment Numbers 12:2 Translation issue
Yes, the Masoretes codified their reading tradition sometime around the 8th century CE. Written consonantally (as in the Torah scroll), the two words are identical.
Jan
9
answered Numbers 12:2 Translation issue
Jan
4
awarded  Yearling
Nov
15
comment What did “ekklesia” mean in the Classical Greek and later the Septuagint, and did the meaning change when it was translated in the KJV bible?
Yep, should have been a comment to begin with! Thanks @Jack Douglas for moving it.
Nov
14
comment What did “ekklesia” mean in the Classical Greek and later the Septuagint, and did the meaning change when it was translated in the KJV bible?
These answers are all great! I'll just add that, as many of you know, this was a particular sticking point in early English translations of the Bible, with reformers like Tyndale charging that not only was the corruption and hierarchy of the Church out of control, but that the Church structure itself was not biblically warranted. Thus they translated ekklesia as "congregation" or "company", implying that any group that met to worship, read Scripture, and receive the Spirit, was keeping with the Gospels' intentions, more so than the High Anglican Church.
Nov
14
comment What did “ekklesia” mean in the Classical Greek and later the Septuagint, and did the meaning change when it was translated in the KJV bible?
When the translators of the KJV met and began the translation work, one of the rules they were given was explicitly that "The ould ecclesiastical words to be kept viz. as the Word Churche not to be translated Congregation &c." (see God's Secretaries, pg. 75). Ironically the word ecclesiastical itself comes from ekklesia... And of course, this issue continues to be argued today.
Sep
29
answered Paul's knowledge of Jannes and Jambres the magicians of Egypt
Sep
27
awarded  Critic
Sep
27
comment Does Leviticus 19:28 in the original text instruct not to tattoo for the dead or not to tattoo at all?
This is a disingenuous translation (as to be expected from ChaBad)... Just because they use a period there does not help us with answering this question, which asks specifically about the Hebrew of the Biblical text.
Sep
27
answered Does Leviticus 19:28 in the original text instruct not to tattoo for the dead or not to tattoo at all?
Aug
9
answered James 1:11 - “…its flower falls…”
Jul
23
comment Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek?
Wow, that's a crazy interview! Sounds pretty out-there conspiracy theory to me, but I have no training in NT studies, so I can't really comment. But sounds pretty unrealistic.
Jul
23
comment Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek?
I'm confused as to what precisely you're referring to — do you have a Jewish source that refers to an evangelion of a Roman military victory? Which military victory are you talking about?
Jul
22
comment Is “Gospel”, or “Good News of Military Victory” what “Evangelion” means in Greek?
Exactly! The root of "evangelion" is just the verb ἀγγέλλω angello ("to announce, bring news of") plus the prefix εὐ, "good" or "well". Announcing a victory is certainly good news!
Jun
12
comment Who or what is Rahab in Job?
@BruceJames, parallelism seems to indicate that Rahab is somehow a counterpart to the sea. Substituting "Egypt" makes no sense here... The Jewish Encyclopedia article gives a number of good prooftexts, including Biblical and Talmudic citations, to demonstrate the connection of Rahab and the ocean-serpent and how it also relates to Egypt and the meaning "haughtiness".
Jun
12
comment Who or what is Rahab in Job?
Great answer! Also, just to clarify that the woman's name Rahab is spelt רחב, i.e. with a heth, and so is unrelated to Rahab with a hei.
Jun
2
awarded  Commentator