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comment Do the “original texts” use fractional numbers?
Jon, Some cultures don't have a concept of numbers; they'll say 1, 2, or many. When I see fractions in the Bible are those words modern interpretations of ancient concepts that don't equate to that kind of fractional thinking? Or do the ancient texts have actual fractions that are similar to modern concepts? EG: Share between 2 people is "roughly give 2 people some stuff from 1 thing", but modern use would be "give them 0.5 each". I understand that this comment still hasn't added much clarity. Sorry! I don't know the words to ask the right question. Answers here have been useful!