User Joseph - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange

Joseph

Member for 11 years, 4 months
Last seen this week

facebook.com/joseph.lukowski
San Antonio, Texas

13 Questions

Score Activity Newest Views

17 votes

12 answers

8k views

Was Job short-changed in the end?

asked May 8, 2014 at 19:19

12 votes

2 answers

7k views

Why is Jer 10:11 written in Aramaic?

asked May 28, 2013 at 19:16

11 votes

7 answers

12k views

Who is the "True Companion" in Philippians 4:3?

asked May 14, 2014 at 0:17

10 votes

1 answer

190 views

Why does the singular form of שַׂעֲרָה appear in Job 4:15?

asked Jun 10, 2015 at 20:17

8 votes

1 answer

244 views

What is the meaning of εἰς τὸ ἐκείνου θέλημα in 2 Tim 2:26 - the will of the devil, or the will of God?

asked Jan 23, 2016 at 17:37

8 votes

1 answer

686 views

How are we to understand «ἀπαιτοῦσιν» in Luke 12:20?

asked Aug 11, 2017 at 3:55

6 votes

3 answers

570 views

Hebrews 12:24: subjective or objective genitive?

asked Mar 25, 2016 at 2:45

5 votes

1 answer

1k views

Why the two paragogic nuns in 1 Sam 2:22?

asked Jan 21, 2015 at 3:12

5 votes

9 answers

9k views

Does the "fear of death" in Hebrews 2:15 refer to the dread of physically dying, or to something else?

asked Apr 25, 2013 at 4:53

2 votes

1 answer

143 views

Not keep silent or to make silent in Job 41:12?

asked Jan 16, 2016 at 18:45

2 votes

3 answers

300 views

Subjective or objective genitive found in 1 Tim 3:6?

asked Dec 14, 2017 at 15:39

1 vote

0 answers

62 views

What is the significance of τὴν κατατομήν in Phil 3:2? [duplicate]

asked Dec 15, 2015 at 14:36

1 vote

1 answer

2k views

Who or what are the "no gods" in Galatians 4:8?

asked May 28, 2013 at 18:41