| bio | website | facebook.com/joseph.lukowski |
|---|---|---|
| location | San Antonio, Texas | |
| age | 47 | |
| visits | member for | 5 months |
| seen | 34 mins ago | |
| stats | profile views | 11 |
I live and work in San Antonio, Texas.
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3h |
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What does “because of the angels” refer to in 1 Cor 11:10? @MonicaCellio - kindly advise if this clarification (above) has helped. |
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May 20 |
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Does Peter suggest Jesus “descended into hell”? @MatthewMiller - irrespective of whatever year (it does not matter), Pentecost happened on the 50th day AFTER the day of Passover. In other words, if Passover was on Friday, then Pentecost was on Sunday. But if Passover, in fact, coincided with the Saturday Sabbath (as you indicate), then Pentecost would have occurred on a Monday. Again, the year per se is moot. In love, brother - Joseph |
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May 19 |
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Does Peter suggest Jesus “descended into hell”? Last comment: If Pentecost had occurred on Sunday (the day of the giving of the Holy Spirit to the church), then the day AFTER Passover would have been Saturday, since the counting of fifty days to Pentecost starts on the day AFTER Passover (Lev 23:15-16). Thus Passover happened on a Friday (scenario above). In other words, if Passover had instead otherwise coincided with the "Saturday" Sabbath (as many Bible scholars maintain), then the giving of the Holy Spirit on Pentecost would have happened on a Monday morning, which would be fifty days following the day AFTER Passover "Saturday." |
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May 19 |
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Does Peter suggest Jesus “descended into hell”? @MatthewMiller - The reason why this Hades thing is so important is because we see that the PERSON not only died physically, but spiritually as well. In Col 1:18 and Rev 1:5, he is "the firstborn from the dead," and the meaning in both verses includes spiritual death. He is the first one to emerge (be born) from spiritual death. While there are examples in the Old Testament and gospel accounts of people raised from physical death, none of them had ever emerged from the state of spiritual death, thus they eventually died again physically. Jesus was thus the first to emerge from spiritual death. |
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May 19 |
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Does Peter suggest Jesus “descended into hell”? @MatthewMiller - Jesus compared his death on several occasions with Jonah. Please click here to see how this allusion relates to Jesus's descent to Hades (or Sheol). Also, my research indicates that 15 Nisan (Passover) fell on a Friday in AD 30. In fact, in my chart, the Passover never once fell on a Saturday between the years of AD 20 and AD 39. Please click here. |
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May 18 |
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Does Peter suggest Jesus “descended into hell”? @matthew - Do you believe that the Greek reading of Ephesians 4:9 supports that Jesus came "down" to the surface of the earth? It sounds that it may be that Jesus descended "into" the lower parts of the earth, which could mean inside of the earth. When Jonah descends "into" the lower parts of the earth (inside the Great Fish) we see the same Greek construct in the LXX. |
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May 18 |
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Does Peter suggest Jesus “descended into hell”? @matthew - in the Hebrew Bible the Passover was a full-blown Sabbath day, and in AD 30, the Passover fell on a Thursday/Friday (15 Nisan). Jesus was crucified shortly before this Sabbath day had begun. Thus this Sabbath was not the "Saturday" Sabbath as many Christian scholars believe; no, it was the "Passover" Sabbath (Thursday/Friday), which was followed by the regular "Saturday" Sabbath (Friday/Saturday). In other words, Jesus was the Passover Lamb. Please see 1 Corinthians 5:7. |
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May 12 |
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What does it mean that the least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than John the Baptist? @hannes - Abraham was righteous, and he was in Hades (Lk 16:23). Jesus was righteous, and he was in Hades (Ac 2:27-31). Abraham was there because he was born/died in spiritual death. Jesus was there because his humanity was separated from his eternal life (and thus his humanity suffered spiritual death). Since he was the first person ever to return from spiritual death, he is the "firstborn" from the dead (Rev 1:5). It is not that he was the first to rise from mortal death (in fact Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead), but that Jesus was the first to rise from both mortal AND spiritual death. |
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May 11 |
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What does it mean that the least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than John the Baptist? @hannes - When Lazarus died and went to be with Abraham according to Luke 16:19-31, the location was not heaven up yonder, but Sheol down under. That is, Jesus indicated that this location was both a place of rest (for righteous Lazarus and Abraham) and a place of torment (for the unrighteous rich man). |
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May 10 |
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What does it mean that the least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than John the Baptist? @hannes - Did anyone who died in the Old Testament ever anticipate going "up" to heaven, or "down" to Sheol? |
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May 9 |
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What is the significance of the young man who runs away naked in Mark's gospel? Is there any parallel of the shame of disobedient man in the Garden of Eden to the nakedness in the Garden of Gethsemane? In other words, is the introduction of shame somehow relevant to the Garden of Gethsemane? Within the Garden of Gethsemane is the obedience of Jesus to die on the cross somehow emphasized when drawn in contradistinction to this shamefulness (uncovering of nakedness)? The contradistinction of shame versus obedience in both gardens is found in Rom 5:18-19. Is the parallel relevant? |
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May 9 |
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Why does Jesus tell his mother his “hour has not yet come”? Do you see any parallel or significance to the first miracle of Moses, when he turned water into blood? |
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May 3 |
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Does the “fear of death” in Hebrews 2:15 refer to the dread of physically dying, or to something else? So you agree, by and large, that unbelievers live under the cloud of their inevitable physical death, and the dread of their death is what makes them slaves in this life. |
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May 2 |
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Does the “fear of death” in Hebrews 2:15 refer to the dread of physically dying, or to something else? There is the parallel of slavery to life and to death in Rom 6:15-18. In that context, life is not physiological life, but spiritual life; and death is not physiological death, but spiritual death. Paul highlights the slavery to spiritual life and to spiritual death, respectively. Do you think that the context in Heb 2:15 could be referring to slavery to spiritual death? In other words, there is the fear of God (slavery to righteousness) and the fear of death (slavery to unrighteousness). Do you see the parallel? Fear therefore is subjugation - either to spiritual life, or to spiritual death. |
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May 2 |
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Does the “fear of death” in Hebrews 2:15 refer to the dread of physically dying, or to something else? pls see my comment to "Mike." Do you see the use of "fear" in Eph 5:21 as bearing on the use of "fear" in Heb 2:15? In other words, if "fear" is the subjectivity to the power of love (in Eph 5:21), then could the slavery in Heb 2:15 be referring to subjectivity to the power of spiritual death (as opposed to bodily death)? Most interpreters take the reference to death in Heb 2:15 as meaning the death of the body, but do you think there is room to interpret "death" here to mean spiritual death instead? That is, unbelievers are subject to the slavery of the power of spiritual death? |
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May 2 |
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Does the “fear of death” in Hebrews 2:15 refer to the dread of physically dying, or to something else? Do you see fear of death in this context as physical death or spiritual death? If spiritual death, what meaning would fear take? Please see Eph 5:21 for an alternative use of "fear." In other words, could the term "fear of death" in Heb 2:15 mean that unbelievers are subject to slavery because of the power of the sphere of spiritual death? In Eph 5:21 we see the use of the word "fear" to mean subjectivity to the power of the love of Christ (spiritual life). In Heb 2:15, that "fear" is subjectivity to the power of spiritual death. "Fear" is thus what subjugates. What are your thoughts? |
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Apr 28 |
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How strong was Midian's army? Moshe sent the force, and they defeated Midian. When the next episode of war occurred with Midian (with Gideon), the arbitrary assignment of forces was not allowed. At that time, if he used ALL his forces, Gideon was outnumbered 17 to 4. If that ratio was "bad" (since the Israelites could claim victory by their own strength at those ratios), and we calculate that ratio to the 12,000 Moshe used, then Midian had a force of 50,000 opposed to Moshe (17 to 4 ratio). That was the "bad" ratio. The "good" ratio was 450:1, which pitted 300 of Gideon's men against 135,000 Midianites. God got the credit. |
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Apr 28 |
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How strong was Midian's army? Gideon is the only other episode of war with the Midianites. The reduction in forces (to 300 men) was intended to preclude any inference that the Israelites could take the credit for the victory over Midian (Judg 7:2). Gideon could have used 32K of his men (Judg 7:3) to take on 135K Midianites (Judg 8:10). Under those circumstances, the odds would be 17:4 in favor of the Midianites. That ratio had to be "reduced" to 450:1, in order for God to claim the credit --thus Gideon's army of 300 men. So, if we assumed the same 17:4 ratio with Moses, then Moses faced 50K Midianites with 12K Israelites. |
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Apr 23 |
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Did 70 or 75 Hebrews go down to Egypt with Jacob? The text of the LXX included the son and grandson of Manasseh in addition to two sons and a grandson of Ephraim -- thus the addition of 5 persons. |
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Apr 23 |
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Whose idea was it to send the spies to scout the land of Israel? @monica - As regards "free will," we see examples of the direct influence of the Lord bearing on both the King of Assyria (Is 37:7) and the King of Persia (Ez 1:1). In both cases, these respective kings made independent unilateral decisions, but their decisions fulfilled predictive prophecy in the process (please see Is 37:37-38 and Is 44:28, respectively). There is "free will," but there is also the direct influence of the Lord, whose own will is fulfilled in the process. |

