5,919 reputation
333
bio website facebook.com/joseph.lukowski
location San Antonio, Texas
age 49
visits member for 1 year, 10 months
seen 21 mins ago

I live and work in San Antonio, Texas.


1d
comment What does it mean when it says,“There is a sin unto death”
@Onlyheisgood. I understand your point of view. What I see is both the visible and invisible Kingdom of God on earth, since the believer is the temple of the Spirit of God. Please click here for an overview. Thanks again for the feedback.
Oct
13
comment Who is the traveler (guest) in Nathan's parable?
Brian - thank you for your comment. Can you help us to correlate what you said with passages from the Biblical Text? For example, you mention the two lobes of the brain and how the relate to our experience. Can you provide us Biblical references? This approach forces us to ask questions of ourselves as to why we believe what we believe in the Bible. If you can articulate and show how you arrived at your conclusions, then you will help us to understand. Otherwise if you do not, then we do not know where or how you came to your views. Thanks!
Oct
12
comment Translation of “Selah” (סֶלָה‎)
Hello, Jerry, and thanks for your post - as noted, if you could provide us more information so that your contribution can "stand on its own feet." If you just provide us your views, then anyone can assume that you derived your ideas from just watching television. If you could provide us some connections to the text so that your views do not become your views so to speak, but the apparent views of the Biblical Texts. Thanks!
Oct
9
comment What is the meaning of the shift from present to aorist in 1 John 2:12-14?
@Susan - I made the correction regarding the conjunction (thanks for pointing out). Also, 1 Jn 2:21 is a good example where the Apostle John switches between both meanings of the conjunction in the same verse with the same verb (and in the same chapter). Please click here.
Sep
28
comment Is “Children of Israel” the only way to read Deuteronomy 32:8?
Don - thanks for your input. Is there anything you can share with us that helps us move beyond observation of the text? In other words, can you share with us some information so that we can convince ourselves based on what you share with us? If you do not, we only have your perspective based on your first impressions. If you can clarify and provide more analysis... Thanks!
Sep
27
comment What is the meaning of the “inverted nuns” (׆ … ׆) around Numbers 10:35-36?
@Susan - I tried to complement the existing posts and show how the nun hafucha in Numbers appeared to relate to the other seven uses of the same nun hafucha in the Hebrew Bible.
Sep
21
comment Are there differences in how the Spirit empowers people?
Hello, Frank - also you can also add that the "filling of the Spirit of God" (Ex 31:3 and Ex 35:31) was something that had occurred and was manifest in wisdom and understanding.
Sep
17
comment Who or what is Rahab in Job?
Bruce, welcome aboard and thank you for your input. Can you draw in parallel the use of this word in Is 30:7, Ps 87:4, Ps 89:11, or even Job 26:12, which is an apparent allusion to Egypt? The idea is to provide us analysis beyond casual first impressions. In other words, when we see the structure and use of the word, and compare and contrast its other uses, then we are can arrive at conclusions that appear more from what the text says than what we say. In this way, we lend more weight to our conclusions. Thanks.
Sep
16
comment Deliver us from “evil” or “the evil one” – help from the Semitists?
@David - Thank you for your clarifications and comments. Very Respectfully,
Sep
12
comment Deliver us from “evil” or “the evil one” – help from the Semitists?
Sir - please click here for the expanded view, which proposes the absolute state of the adjective (instead of the determinate state). Very Respectfully submitted, Joseph
Sep
12
comment Deliver us from “evil” or “the evil one” – help from the Semitists?
Sir - Thank you for the concise summary (+1). Can you double check whether the adjective is in the determinate state (definite article present) or the absolute state (definite article not present)? Apparently, when the definite article is absent, the feminine gender would imply the general sense of evil whereas the masculine gender of the same adjective would imply someone evil. Please click here and review comments highlighted in yellow. Very Respectfully
Sep
10
comment Assessments of the evidence for the “Gap Theory” reading of Genesis 1:1-2?
@user2479 - I kept the scope of my answer on the question of the OP, which was limited to the "Gap Theory" inside the Hebrew Bible.
Sep
10
comment Assessments of the evidence for the “Gap Theory” reading of Genesis 1:1-2?
@PaulVargas - I made an edit to change "re-arrange" to just "arrange" (the implication here is to constitute, to fix, or to establish)
Sep
6
comment Why do the Jews in John 8:33 say that they have never been enslaved?
Hello, Ivan - welcome aboard. Thank you for your analysis. In the future, can you hyperlink your verses (or source citations), so that we can check such references with a click? Also, feel free to structure your comments in paragraphs since (here) your had grouped several thoughts into one large paragraph. Thanks!
Sep
3
comment “Surely not” vs “not surely” in Genesis 3:4
@Susan - Waltke and O'Connor provide no examples, which make for the difficulty in understanding. Thank you for the suggested edits.
Sep
2
comment What is the best translation of κατὰ κεφαλῆς in 1 Cor 11:4?
Hello, Andy, and welcome aboard - please feel free to browse and contribute more posts. We like to see original analysis, because with so much written in academia, one can "cherry pick" the particular bias for which one is particular. So we ask you to provide YOUR analysis from the texts (and feel free to use academic sources). The point here is that YOU provide us YOUR analysis based on the primary source material at hand. Commentaries are not primary source material, and thus our preference for direct analysis of the Biblical texts. Thanks!
Aug
21
comment What biblical figure was present during the dinosaurs?
@JamesShewey - the account of Genesis (1:1-2:4) appears in Exodus 20:11 and Exodus 31:17.
Aug
20
comment What is the head covering referring to in 1 Corinthians 11:4-6?
@Onlyheisgood. Please click here. In this post I relate how the authority of Deborah (in the Hebrew Bible) was correlated to Barak. Please read the comments in that post. So, yes, my hypothesis is that women may operate in tandem with men, but not independent of them.
Aug
20
comment What is the head covering referring to in 1 Corinthians 11:4-6?
@Onlyheisgood. I appreciate the magnitude of shame/honor in the Ancient Far East. We must not underestimate that our modern "eyes" miss these nuances in Scripture. However, the Greek believers in Corinth were dealing with sexual immorality and "power politics" in their congregation. One aggravating circumstance was the role of women (in general) in regard to speaking gifts, which had exercised authority over men (in general). Were women charged with the "glory" of wearing the crown of the authority of God? Or were the charged with the "glory" of wearing the crown of magnificence?
Aug
19
comment What is the head covering referring to in 1 Corinthians 11:4-6?
@Onlyheisgood. I checked the reference to Numbers 30, but that reference appears to relate to women and their relationship to their fathers and/or husbands. The issue in 1 Corinthians 11 appears to relate to women "praying and prophesying," which are speaking gifts relating to the authority of the Word of God. In other words, there are no daughters or wives in 1 Corinthians 11 making any vows, which are in turn overruled by the fathers and/or husbands. Also, there is no reference in Numbers 30 to the "glory" of the head (whether man or woman), which would help us to better understand 1 Cor 11.