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Jun
28
comment Does Paul believe that God sandbagged the Jews with a law they couldn't keep?
Ginny - thank you for these insights, and I am sure that absolutely no one will disagree with you. But can you tell us the why behind your statements? Why was shrimp, lobster, and pork unclean to God? (Why can we eat these foods as delicacies before God today with a "clean" conscience?) For example, how does the image of God (in both men and women) define what is "moral" (and "immoral") in human sexuality? These are just suggestions. Thanks.
Jun
28
comment What is meant in 1 Peter 3:21 when it says “baptism now saves you”
Your answer is excellent. As you answer questions, kindly hyperlink verses, so that we may check them with one click. Also, I followed your logic quite well, but I am guessing that most of the commentary is your view, but do you have any references? For example, how does the baptism of the great flood compare to the baptism into Moses, when the Israelites were saved from Egypt? Please use other references from the Bible to help us tie into your logic. In this way, there is more than one data point (beyond your particular view) to enable us to draw the correct inferences from the text. Thanks!
Jun
22
comment What does the author of Ecclesiastes Chapter 2 mean that 'his heart was still guided with wisdom' as he went about doing foolish things?
@Mike - your question (and the answer) focused on the interpretation of one phrase in one verse.... For example, please see the comments of Rashi for verse 9, where Rashi unpacks the meaning of the context of wisdom in the chapter.
Jun
18
comment Qualifications for deacons and pastors in 1 Timothy 3:1-12
@curiousdannii - do women occupy the office of oversight?
Jun
17
comment Is the Son of Man passage in Matthew 25 a reference to 1 Enoch?
Justin - thanks for joining us. Kindly take the tour of the website. We like to see not only your answer, but how you arrived at your answer. If you just give us some verses, then we are left wondering how you might have come to your conclusions. Thanks!
Jun
17
comment Is this person's translation of the Hebrew of Leviticus 18:22 accurate?
Lora - your posting is very gracious and kind. However, your posting did not develop the meaning of זָכָר, which means male/man; and also you did not contrast מִשְׁכָּב with male/man. That is, מִשְׁכָּב here would include the sense of consensual sex between male/men.
Jun
13
comment Is the 'knowledge that increases sorrow' any kind of knowledge or directed to a focus of some subject in Ecclesiastes 1:17?
@e.s.Kohen - for reference, my own hand-written translation is here. I have modified my posting to provide access to the Targum. Very Respectfully,
Jun
12
comment Is the 'knowledge that increases sorrow' any kind of knowledge or directed to a focus of some subject in Ecclesiastes 1:17?
@e.s.Kohen - my posting hinges on the commentary of Rashi found in the Talmud. That is, Qohelet is not about wisdom resulting in vanity (which is the most popular approach to the text), but is instead about the vanity that comes from embracing wisdom (divine revelation from God) at the exclusion of personal holiness. Rashi's comments find resonance in both the Babylonian Talmud and the Targum Qohelet. These three "primary" Jewish sources force us to reconsider our approaches to the text. Also, the commentary you provided does not quote Rashi's opinions on Qohelet. Very Respectfully,
Jun
12
comment Is the 'knowledge that increases sorrow' any kind of knowledge or directed to a focus of some subject in Ecclesiastes 1:17?
In this regard, the late Bruce Metzger once quoted Johannes Albrecht Bengel, who had written the following in the preface to his 1734 edition of the Greek New Testament, "Te totum applica ad textum: rem totam applica ad te" ("Apply yourself wholly to the text: apply the whole matter to yourself).
Jun
10
comment Are there two distinct words [‘lexemes’] for ‘fish’ in Jonah 2?
@ScottS - David made the correct observations, and I have made the changes accordingly. And thanks for the awesome feedback! Very Respectfully,
Jun
9
comment Are there two distinct words [‘lexemes’] for ‘fish’ in Jonah 2?
@David - based on your feedback, I updated the posting. I also amplified based on other comments. Thank you. Very Respectfully,
Jun
8
comment Are there two distinct words [‘lexemes’] for ‘fish’ in Jonah 2?
@ScottS - I do not know of any scholars who have taken this approach. I chanced upon Gesenius when I clicked through the lexicons on Logos software. Thanks again for respectful feedback from last week. Very Respectfully,
Jun
1
comment In Hebrews 9:22, How Should “Almost” be Interpreted, and What does it Apply to?
@e.s.kohen - I see what you are saying. My explanation was only one suggestion from the perspective of oral Jewish tradition as codified in the Babylonian Talmud (that is, how the Jewish mind may have understood the relationship between blood and water in Heb 9:22).
Jun
1
comment In Hebrews 9:22, How Should “Almost” be Interpreted, and What does it Apply to?
@e.s.Kohen - the blood atones for all sin, but unless there is washing by water (that is, until the convert is baptized in living water), then there is no complete cleansing. The blood and water complement one another to provide complete cleansing. Thus we have to say that almost all things are cleansed with blood.
May
24
comment Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?
@e.s.Kohen - thanks for the feedback - I will edit my posting accordingly.
May
22
comment Why do different English translations differ on Matthew 24:36?
Abe - you cited several verses, and we are familiar with them, but how do you tie them together? For example, when the woman with the blood hemorrhage touched the cloak of Jesus and was healed (Matt 9:20-22). He sensed that power had left his body, but he stated that he did not know who touched him. How could that passage help us to understand the question raised by the OP concerning Matt 24:36? Help us to glean some insights from your own personal journey through the Scriptures!
May
22
comment Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
@David - The Nineteenth Century Hebraist William Wickes indicated that the system of accents and cantillation marks were not driven by grammar, but by logic. This citation comes from his book, Two Treatises on the Accentuation of the Old Testament (Vol. I). Oxford: Clarendon Press, 3-4 (1887). Very Respectfully,
May
22
comment Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
@MarkEdward - Yes, you correctly understood my point. That is, šām refers to a 'there'... but that the 'there' is Hamah (better, hēmmâ), not Adam. Again, the system of cantillations and accents is not grammatical, but logical.
May
22
comment Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
@David - In the purple highlighted areas where I cite Keil & Delitzsch, they mention Psalm 14:5. In that verse, šām is modified by the remainder of the verse (through the systems of cantillations and accents). They indicate that the same applies to Hosea 6:7. So the modifying here is not grammatical, but logical (through the systems of cantillations and accents). Very Respectfully,
May
11
comment What is the difference between “soul” and “spirit”?
@e.s.Kohen - The word ר֚וּחַ appears for both men and beast in Eccl. 3:21, -- that is, notwithstanding that both have the ר֚וּחַ (which the context makes clear in Eccl. 3:19-20) -- what happens after death is another discussion, since animals are not made in the divine image. You are correct that these various terms appear almost interchangeably throughout the Bible, and so warrant scrutiny when they appear in their respective contexts.