Reputation
8,374
Next tag badge:
80/100 score
29/20 answers
Badges
5 41
Newest
 Revival
Impact
~306k people reached

2d
comment Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?
@e.s.Kohen - thanks for the feedback - I will edit my posting accordingly.
May
22
comment Why do different English translations differ on Matthew 24:36?
Abe - you cited several verses, and we are familiar with them, but how do you tie them together? For example, when the woman with the blood hemorrhage touched the cloak of Jesus and was healed (Matt 9:20-22). He sensed that power had left his body, but he stated that he did not know who touched him. How could that passage help us to understand the question raised by the OP concerning Matt 24:36? Help us to glean some insights from your own personal journey through the Scriptures!
May
22
comment Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
@David - The Nineteenth Century Hebraist William Wickes indicated that the system of accents and cantillation marks were not driven by grammar, but by logic. This citation comes from his book, Two Treatises on the Accentuation of the Old Testament (Vol. I). Oxford: Clarendon Press, 3-4 (1887). Very Respectfully,
May
22
comment Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
@MarkEdward - Yes, you correctly understood my point. That is, šām refers to a 'there'... but that the 'there' is Hamah (better, hēmmâ), not Adam. Again, the system of cantillations and accents is not grammatical, but logical.
May
22
comment Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
@David - In the purple highlighted areas where I cite Keil & Delitzsch, they mention Psalm 14:5. In that verse, šām is modified by the remainder of the verse (through the systems of cantillations and accents). They indicate that the same applies to Hosea 6:7. So the modifying here is not grammatical, but logical (through the systems of cantillations and accents). Very Respectfully,
May
11
comment What is the difference between “soul” and “spirit”?
@e.s.Kohen - The word ר֚וּחַ appears for both men and beast in Eccl. 3:21, -- that is, notwithstanding that both have the ר֚וּחַ (which the context makes clear in Eccl. 3:19-20) -- what happens after death is another discussion, since animals are not made in the divine image. You are correct that these various terms appear almost interchangeably throughout the Bible, and so warrant scrutiny when they appear in their respective contexts.
May
9
comment Looking Me Whom They Have Pierced - Zechariah 12:10
@RevelationLad - The Mishnah and subsequent Talmud appeared after the closing of the New Testament canon. What is somber and causes much reflection is that the eschatological "Meshiach ben Joseph" appears to be a candidate for the Antichrist, and the "Meshiach ben David" the candidate for the False Prophet, if and when we read the Revelation of John, the Book of Daniel, and portions of 1 and 2 Thessalonians as "futurist" predictive prophecy.
May
9
comment Looking Me Whom They Have Pierced - Zechariah 12:10
@RevelationLad - I think that today whenever any Christian partakes of the Lord's Table they are "seeing" the pierced one, because the bread represents his broken body and the cup represents his blood.
May
4
comment Psalm 19:3: whose voice?
@Susan - According to vv. 1-2 of this Psalm, the heavens and earth are "declaring" and "uttering" the existence of the Creator, but these proclamations do not come through spoken words but through what is seen. This context suggests that the שָׁמַע of v.4 has nothing to do with sounds per se, but with the wider context of understanding "words unspoken." The same implication was evident when Jesus said, "let him who has ears hear" -- that is, the emphasis is not on processing audible words, but understanding through what was seen (e.g., the signs of Jesus as the "word" of God).
May
4
comment Psalm 19:3: whose voice?
@Susan - This Psalm is about the creation testifying (in silence) to the existence of the Creator. The Apostle Paul alluded to this Psalm in Romans 1:20 as the basis for the existence of God. That is, this silent testimony to mankind occurs without the use of any words. The response of man is obedience to the Creator, but not through any objects (idolatry) of the creation.
May
4
comment Psalm 19:3: whose voice?
@Susan - In the Bible "hearing" is not only the idea of processing sounds through the human ear but also perceiving and understanding with the mind. As you know, in Biblical Hebrew, "listening to the voice" of someone is an idiom for obedience.
Apr
26
comment Rev 9:4: Do not hurt the non-existing grass?
@Bagpipes - Do you see nuclear war here? Effects within the earth's atmosphere ("global warming" in extremis) combined with solar activity appear to cause temperatures on earth to soar (Rev 7:2-3 and Rev 7:16). If the eschatological outlook of the last century was to see the events of Revelation as nuclear war, then we in this century today must look through the lens of cyber warfare, where such sophisticated implements of war may be made useless since they rely on computers to function (and thus the appearance of horses, for example, supporting mechanized military and logistics operations).
Apr
22
comment John 12:32 - What/Who Does the “All” refer to?
Susan - great comment!! Do you know how to hyperlink the verse reference you made? If you can hyperlink your verse references, folks will be able to check the verse for personal reference. (Finally, in the future, can you tie something from the Hebrew Bible, or Old Testament, to help to see any possible connections?) Thanks!!!
Apr
18
comment Did Jesus have actual marks or holes in his hands and side after his resurrection? John 20
@JoshuaBigbee - the signal identification of Jesus Christ at the Second Advent will be seeing one "pierced" (see Ps 22:16 and Is 53:5 and compare with Zech 12:10, which is repeated in Jn 19:34, Jn 19:37, and then in Rev 1:7). The emphasis at the end times is the visual identification of one "pierced" (or one maimed by crucifixion), which will be the signal identifier of Jesus Christ -- which is, incidentally, how the disciples had recognized him after his resurrection.
Apr
14
comment What about the eggs? (Deuteronomy 22:6-7)
Pablo, here is one monograph on the subject: Eliezer Segal, “Justice, Mercy and a Bird’s Nest,” JJS 42 (1991): 176–95. Another discussion looking through the eyes of rabbinic Judiaism and early Christianity would be: R. M. Johnston, “ ‘The Least of the Commandments’: Deuteronomy 22:6–7 in Rabbinic Judaism and Early Christianity,” AUSS 20 (1982): 205–15.
Apr
14
comment Did Jesus have actual marks or holes in his hands and side after his resurrection? John 20
@JoshuaBigbee - we have to take what we know from Scripture, and surmise the meaning. Is the same "lamb" whom John the Baptist saw at the River Jordan the same "lamb" that John saw in his vision of heaven? If Thomas touched the nail marks and spear piercing, could the "lamb" remain disfigured in his glorified body? Paul said that "flesh and blood" could not inherit the kingdom of God (1 Cor 15:50), but the resurrected Jesus had described his resurrected body as "flesh and bone" (Lu 24:39) The conclusion is that Jesus has a glorified body, but this body is material and appears scarred for life.
Apr
13
comment Does Granville Sharp's Rule indicate that “God” and “Savior” share a referent in Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1?
@Jas3.1 - no - click here. This example from the LXX carries no ones name, and thus no personal pronouns are involved. I was hoping this example was relevant to the original question....
Apr
13
comment Does Granville Sharp's Rule indicate that “God” and “Savior” share a referent in Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1?
@Jas3.1 - Would not the example from the LXX be reasonable and relevant to the original question?
Apr
13
comment In light of this scripture how does this fit in with a dispensational hermeneutic if this is the first resurrection?
@JoshuaBigbee - how can "first" have any meaning when there is no such thing as the "second"? (There would be no contrast of meaning, unless the second existed.) Thus the "second" resurrection is not explicit, but has to be inferred by the reader. Another inferential leap is the last judgment, which is not about sinners, but concerns those who do not have eternal life. The Books of Dead Works is thus inferred (like the "second" resurrection), because those without eternal life lived lives demonstrating through their deeds that they were dead spiritually -- i.e., they never had eternal life).
Mar
24
comment Can the term “eisegesis” apply to the interpretation of Old Testament passages as prophecies specifically of Jesus?
Fred - can you focus on some particular passage? Our website is not intended to provide a fishing expedition of general questions (no matter how interesting such as the one you presented), because we focus on interpreting passages. If we opened the doors to generalized questions, the "noise" level (not to mention immediate doctrinal interference) would drown out the "signal" of hermeneutical interpretation. Can you restructure your question so that the question is "pegged" to a particular verse or passage of Scripture? Questions then are tied to the texts, and not the other way around. Thanks!