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Nov
9
comment What sort of phrasing is “the many” in Romans 5?
I absolutely LOVE the graph (+1). Can you explain to us why then everyone does not receive the free gift of eternal life, if (in fact) Jesus had died for the sins of all people (that is, for "everyone else")? Thanks.
Nov
8
comment Genesis 2:24 - How do a husband and wife become one flesh?
@Tau - the man and woman are "one flesh" because they derive vital life needs (pleasure, identity, value) due to the sexual union, which has the typical result in producing offspring, who are "one flesh" with their parents, by whom they derive vital life needs (pleasure, identity, value). For example, sex with a prostitute makes you "one flesh" with her because the bond occurs by one with whom you derive vital life needs (pleasure, identity, value) albeit shamefully. In other words, my posting explains the "why" behind the meaning of the divine pronouncement of "one flesh."
Nov
7
comment Genesis 2:24 - How do a husband and wife become one flesh?
@Tau - the children are one flesh with the parents because the parents in logical order are one flesh first. The obvious conclusion here is that parents precede the children. Are we in violent agreement? :)
Nov
5
revised Genesis 2:24 - How do a husband and wife become one flesh?
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Nov
5
revised Genesis 2:24 - How do a husband and wife become one flesh?
added 7 characters in body
Nov
5
comment Genesis 2:24 - How do a husband and wife become one flesh?
@Tau - the first man and woman were one flesh in the sense that they sexually bonded and complemented one another for love and intimacy, which resulted in children. The mystery of the Christian New Testament uses both aspects of this one flesh image: that is, believers are first born again as children (sons of God) in order to become wedded to the body of Christ.
Nov
5
revised Genesis 2:24 - How do a husband and wife become one flesh?
Update and tweaks
Nov
4
answered Genesis 2:24 - How do a husband and wife become one flesh?
Nov
1
awarded  Revival
Oct
28
revised Rational Biblical answers to the non-human problem of evil
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Oct
28
answered Rational Biblical answers to the non-human problem of evil
Oct
27
comment What false teaching is Paul referring to when he says Hymenaeus and Philetus taught that “the resurrection has already happened”?
@ThaddeusB - The most popular reference for the rapture is 1 Th 4:13-18. Next, the pre-tribulational rapture again appears in 2 Th 2:1-2 (based on the reference to the Day of the Lord). If we assume that the last epistle preserved from Paul was 2 Tim, then we can infer that the "resurrection" was in reference to the rapture because the fear would stem from being left on earth during the Day of the Lord. The references to Gentile believers living in Greece & Asia Minor would imply this expectation of "resurrection" and judgment was not limited to Palestine and later events in Jerusalem in AD 70
Oct
25
answered What false teaching is Paul referring to when he says Hymenaeus and Philetus taught that “the resurrection has already happened”?
Oct
20
revised Who does the “Mother of Zebedee's sons” refer to?
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Oct
20
revised What is the meaning of the Greek word “ask” as used in James 1:5?
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Oct
19
answered In John 8:31 in what sense did the people believe in Jesus?
Oct
18
revised What's behind the difference between the Greek and Hebrew of Exodus 21?
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Oct
18
revised What's behind the difference between the Greek and Hebrew of Exodus 21?
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Oct
16
answered What's behind the difference between the Greek and Hebrew of Exodus 21?
Oct
14
revised Who are eunuchs of their mother's womb?
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