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Apr
14
revised Does Granville Sharp's Rule indicate that “God” and “Savior” share a referent in Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1?
edited body
Apr
14
comment Did Jesus have actual marks or holes in his hands and side after his resurrection? John 20
@JoshuaBigbee - we have to take what we know from Scripture, and surmise the meaning. Is the same "lamb" whom John the Baptist saw at the River Jordan the same "lamb" that John saw in his vision of heaven? If Thomas touched the nail marks and spear piercing, could the "lamb" remain disfigured in his glorified body? Paul said that "flesh and blood" could not inherit the kingdom of God (1 Cor 15:50), but the resurrected Jesus had described his resurrected body as "flesh and bone" (Lu 24:39) The conclusion is that Jesus has a glorified body, but this body is material and appears scarred for life.
Apr
13
answered Did Jesus have actual marks or holes in his hands and side after his resurrection? John 20
Apr
13
comment Does Granville Sharp's Rule indicate that “God” and “Savior” share a referent in Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1?
@Jas3.1 - no - click here. This example from the LXX carries no ones name, and thus no personal pronouns are involved. I was hoping this example was relevant to the original question....
Apr
13
comment Does Granville Sharp's Rule indicate that “God” and “Savior” share a referent in Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1?
@Jas3.1 - Would not the example from the LXX be reasonable and relevant to the original question?
Apr
13
comment In light of this scripture how does this fit in with a dispensational hermeneutic if this is the first resurrection?
@JoshuaBigbee - how can "first" have any meaning when there is no such thing as the "second"? (There would be no contrast of meaning, unless the second existed.) Thus the "second" resurrection is not explicit, but has to be inferred by the reader. Another inferential leap is the last judgment, which is not about sinners, but concerns those who do not have eternal life. The Books of Dead Works is thus inferred (like the "second" resurrection), because those without eternal life lived lives demonstrating through their deeds that they were dead spiritually -- i.e., they never had eternal life).
Apr
12
answered Does Granville Sharp's Rule indicate that “God” and “Savior” share a referent in Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1?
Apr
12
answered In light of this scripture how does this fit in with a dispensational hermeneutic if this is the first resurrection?
Apr
11
awarded  Revival
Apr
11
answered Was Jabez asking God to keep him from harm or from evil/sin?
Apr
9
awarded  Announcer
Apr
9
reviewed Satisfactory What is “that day” in John 14:20?
Apr
9
reviewed Satisfactory What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?
Apr
9
reviewed Satisfactory What is Jesus' purpose in asking about Psalm 110?
Apr
9
reviewed Satisfactory Col. 1:27: What is the meaning of “this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory”?
Apr
9
reviewed Satisfactory Why is the only use of the word antichrist (G500) in 1st and 2nd John?
Apr
9
reviewed Satisfactory Did Moses write Psalm 90?
Apr
9
reviewed Satisfactory John 16:12 - What were the “many things”?
Apr
9
reviewed Excellent Shema and Psalms 110: Is Mark making a case for Jesus' divinity?
Apr
9
reviewed Excellent What does the phrase "ἐγὼ ἐν τῷ πατρὶ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοί ἐστιν” mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10?