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Jun
1
revised In Hebrews 9:22, How Should “Almost” be Interpreted, and What does it Apply to?
Tweaks to reflect the questions of the OP
Jun
1
answered In Hebrews 9:22, How Should “Almost” be Interpreted, and What does it Apply to?
May
27
revised Why are the crowds amazed when they see Jesus in Mark 9?
Typo correction
May
27
revised Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?
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May
27
revised Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?
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May
26
revised Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?
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May
24
comment Acts 1:2 - What does the prepositional phrase διὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου modify?
@e.s.Kohen - thanks for the feedback - I will edit my posting accordingly.
May
23
answered What are the “righteous acts” of the saints in Revelation 19:8?
May
22
reviewed No Action Needed Would it have mattered if God cursed Adam and Eve if they had eaten from the tree of life?
May
22
reviewed Reviewed Can the Bible's relative chronology be made an 'absolute' chronology?
May
22
reviewed Reviewed Why do different English translations differ on Matthew 24:36?
May
22
comment Why do different English translations differ on Matthew 24:36?
Abe - you cited several verses, and we are familiar with them, but how do you tie them together? For example, when the woman with the blood hemorrhage touched the cloak of Jesus and was healed (Matt 9:20-22). He sensed that power had left his body, but he stated that he did not know who touched him. How could that passage help us to understand the question raised by the OP concerning Matt 24:36? Help us to glean some insights from your own personal journey through the Scriptures!
May
22
comment Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
@David - The Nineteenth Century Hebraist William Wickes indicated that the system of accents and cantillation marks were not driven by grammar, but by logic. This citation comes from his book, Two Treatises on the Accentuation of the Old Testament (Vol. I). Oxford: Clarendon Press, 3-4 (1887). Very Respectfully,
May
22
comment Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
@MarkEdward - Yes, you correctly understood my point. That is, šām refers to a 'there'... but that the 'there' is Hamah (better, hēmmâ), not Adam. Again, the system of cantillations and accents is not grammatical, but logical.
May
22
comment Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
@David - In the purple highlighted areas where I cite Keil & Delitzsch, they mention Psalm 14:5. In that verse, šām is modified by the remainder of the verse (through the systems of cantillations and accents). They indicate that the same applies to Hosea 6:7. So the modifying here is not grammatical, but logical (through the systems of cantillations and accents). Very Respectfully,
May
22
awarded  Revival
May
22
answered Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?
May
19
revised “Voice” or “string” in Psalm 19:4?
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May
19
answered “Voice” or “string” in Psalm 19:4?
May
18
revised Does the book of Ecclesiastes portray Qohelet as the author?
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