3,052 reputation
220
bio website facebook.com/joseph.lukowski
location San Antonio, Texas
age 48
visits member for 1 year, 4 months
seen 18 hours ago

I live and work in San Antonio, Texas.


23h
comment Is the breaking of bread in Luke 24:30 meant to be understood in terms of the Last Supper?
I am just asking you to look at Acts 2:42, Acts 2:46, and Acts 20:7 and provide me your feedback (with no regard to creedal or doctrinal statements from any denomination). Thx
1d
comment Is the breaking of bread in Luke 24:30 meant to be understood in terms of the Last Supper?
In the passage at hand (Luke 24:31), Jesus is praying (giving thanks), and breaking the bread. After Pentecost, the believers prayed and broke bread (without any mention of wine or cup) in Acts 2:42 and Acts 2:46. Even the Apostle Paul "breaks bread" on the first day of the week with other disciples as part of fellowship with no mention of any cup of wine (Acts 20:7). Could the events of Luke 24:31 (where no mention of the cup of wine occurs) therefore have been the celebration of the Lord's Table in light of the Book of Acts? In other words, can we celebrate the Lord's Table without wine?
1d
comment Is the breaking of bread in Luke 24:30 meant to be understood in terms of the Last Supper?
Thank, Don - Mary also neither physically recognized him at the grave after resurrection (Jn 20:14) much less the disciples at the seashore (Jn 21:4), who were not sure that the man was Jesus. (His nail marks later were the tell-tale signs that he was in fact Jesus according to Jn 20:27.) When Apostle John sees him in the Revelation, he describes Jesus as appearing as someone who was slaughtered (Rev 5:6). In other words, while our sins are forgiven and washed away, we will have eternity to look upon Him and see the scars that brought us all to heaven in order to worship and adore him forever.
Apr
19
comment What constitutes “destroying God's temple” as in 1 Corinthians 3:17?
The passage in 1 Cor 3:17 is in the plural. That is "you" should be translated "y'all." However, the preceding verses mention that the individual believer (temple) is building upon the collective body (temple). Is there therefore not in view the contributions the believer makes to the body collective? In other words, are your contributions "edifying" (gold, silver, precious stones) or are they worthless (wood, hay, straw)? The Lord if the judge! Thus if you are wise (1 Cor 3:18-23), your boasting will not be in yourself (worthless) but in the Lord (edifying). Do you see rewards in view here?
Apr
19
comment What constitutes “destroying God's temple” as in 1 Corinthians 3:17?
You make no mention of the wood, hay, and straw. Could these refer to the wood of the ark of Noah or the bricks in Egypt (straw and hay) made by the Israelites? I do not know. But would not reward be more in line with the context in this passage? In other words, while our conclusions are not incorrect applications, the question is: What is the actual interpretation? The interpretation appears to lean toward rewards. In other words, your contributions to the body of Christ are either "edifying" the church (gold, silver, and precious stones) or weakening the church (with wood, hay, and straw).
Apr
16
comment Who were the “sons of God” (bene elohim) in Genesis 6:2?
I was just curious why you did not cite Job in your research, when it is the only other place in the Hebrew Bible where "sons of God" appear; and secondly, the events of Job (the person of Job) pre-existed Moses, so the term "sons of God" had reference to angels in the (proto-)Hebrew language at that time. Why you make no mention of intra-Biblical references (to the Book of Job) as part of your research is thus my question.
Apr
15
comment Are the periods in Revelation a single period of 3 and 1/2 years or something else?
Very detailed - thanks. Grammatical nuance also appears in Revelation 8:1 (please click here) to indicate the apparent midpoint of the seven year period.
Apr
15
comment What does “being salted with fire” mean in Mark 9:49?
Please see my comments here, which allude not only to complete sterility, but also to a permanent state of desolation.
Apr
15
comment Who were the “sons of God” (bene elohim) in Genesis 6:2?
Where would the "Sons of God" or heavenly council mentioned in the Book of Job (Chapter 1, Chapter 2 and Chapter 38) fit in your explanation? What constitutes one (whether angel or man) to be call "Son of God" in the Bible? For example, Adam was "the Son of God" (Luke 3:38). Why would angels, Adam, and finally Jesus be termed "Sons of God" in the Bible? Thanks in advance.
Apr
8
comment Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
@H3br3wHamm3r81 - It is not my eyes, but my memory of Greek that fails me - I deleted the passaged concerned, and I hope that the remainder of the post holds water! I need to just go back to Hebrew :) Like research papers, sometimes several iterations are necessary to clarify what you-think-you-thought-you-wrote.
Apr
8
revised Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
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Apr
8
revised Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
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Apr
8
comment Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
OK - will do - thx.
Apr
8
revised Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
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Apr
8
comment Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
@Daи - Thanks for the feedback - I am editing with more relevant verses to reinforce the points. Finally, while there are Greek scholars among us, I prefer to write in simple and plain language so that more than just a few may understand "what is written."
Apr
8
revised Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
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Apr
8
comment Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
@Daи - Be careful you do not throw out the baby with the bath water. The example from Heb 10:5 provides an example of the middle voice occurring when the simple active voice would have sufficed. In other words, the middle voice does not detract from the "active" or "passive" meaning of the verb.
Apr
8
comment Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
@ScottS - As you know, inanimate fishing nets do not repair themselves. But the passive participle and the object (nets) are in the accusative plural. So the participle is not passive, but middle, since the subject of the participle (James and John) are acting not in a passive voice of the verb on themselves, but middle voice, since they are repairing the nets in their own self-interest (middle voice). Again, it is physically impossible and illogical for inanimate nets to repair themselves (passive voice).
Apr
8
revised Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?
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Apr
8
answered Are the 'vessels of wrath' in Romans 9:22 'prepared for' or are they 'preparing themselves for destruction'?