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| visits | member for | 6 months |
| seen | Jan 26 at 15:15 | |
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Nov 20 |
comment |
In what sense would Nathanael have “seen” in John 1:51? The time to edit passed. This is what I added: had I said Jesus promised to reconcile Man with God, while conveying the gist of his remark, would have been a bit cryptic, I think. |
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Nov 20 |
comment |
In what sense would Nathanael have “seen” in John 1:51? Hi Jon, I realise that Biblical Hermeneutics limits itself to exploration of the original text and the meaning of the text itself. That means it is almost a given that a huge amount of pre-understanding must be laid out for a modern reader to see the meaning the same way a 1st Century reader did. |
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Nov 20 |
awarded | Editor |
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Nov 20 |
revised |
In what sense would Nathanael have “seen” in John 1:51? Format changes |
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Nov 20 |
answered | In what sense would Nathanael have “seen” in John 1:51? |
