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bio website simply-a-christian.com
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Jun
22
comment What does “My Lord and my God” Mean?
There's John (the author/ narrator), and then there's two other "persons," if you will: ὁ λόγος ("the Word") and ὀ θεὸς ("God"; note the definite article). There's no need to introduce more than two people in the hypothetical since the context clearly indicates only two persons are involved in John 1:1. John is trying to emphasize that ὁ λόγος is God (θεὸς) in nature (or species, εἶδος), but he doesn't want the reader to think that ὁ λόγος is the same "person" as ὀ θεὸς. Every living thing can be classified under an εἶδος, or species.
Jun
22
comment What does “My Lord and my God” Mean?
θεὸς is anathrous in John 1:1 because John is informing the reader what ὁ λόγος is, not who ὁ λόγος is. For example, I imagine I am standing in a room with another man. John wants to tell an alien (play along) what I am. The alien is not familiar with our species. So, he tells the alien, "Ἐστίν ἄνθρωπος." "He is man" or "he is human." If John had said, "Ἐστίν ὀ ἄνθρωπος," the alien might have thought John was saying, "He is the man." The alien would have said, "How can he be the man (pointing to the man beside me)? There are two men right there!"
Jun
19
comment Can the word translated as “messiah” be considered a title when referring to Jesus?
@PatFerguson: The way you word it, it appears that "hoped-for" is instrinsically related to the meaning of the Hebrew word משיח or Greek word χριστός. The words simply means "anointed one."
Jun
18
comment Can the word translated as “messiah” be considered a title when referring to Jesus?
Not quite accurate. משיח is also used to describe a Gentile, the Persian king Koresh ("Cyrus") (Isa. 45:1). And, frankly, the idea of "hoped-for anointed one" is yet to be proven and shouldn't simply be assumed according to what people have understood by hearsay or tradition.
Jun
18
comment Can the word translated as “messiah” be considered a title when referring to Jesus?
@fredsbend: See my quotation of St. Augustine which I have included at the end.
Jun
15
comment What does Azazel mean in Leviticus 16:8?
@Kate: No, Ibn Ezra didn't mean immediately after. He was referring to the word שְׂעִירִם which comes after azaz'el --- 33 verses after to be exact.
Jun
14
comment What does Azazel mean in Leviticus 16:8?
@Kate: See Strong's 8163.
Jun
14
comment What does Azazel mean in Leviticus 16:8?
@Kate: "33 years" could not refer to Jesus. Ibn Ezra was not a Christian. He wouldn't say such a thing. The reason Ibn Ezra is being so secretive is because Jews do not typically contradict traditional understandings of scripture as established by their predecessors. Back in the days of the Mishna, rabbis generally believed that Azazel should be understood as a mountain. Ibn Ezra didn't really believe that although he said that was possibly the "simple" (pshat) interpretation of the scripture. But, the "secret" (sod) interpretation is that it refers to an angel/ demon.
Jun
14
comment Who is Wisdom in Proverbs
קנה seems to have the sense of "to possess," and by implication, it often means "to buy." Thus, the phrase should preferably be translated as "YHVH possessed me..." Of course, when we think about it, if we say that God made wisdom, which means that wisdom did not exist at one point, then it also reasons that God lacked wisdom at one point. Is that something one really wants to admit?
Jun
14
comment Who is Wisdom in Proverbs
Although many translations translate the verb as "made," the Hebrew verb קנה is not the one most often translated as "made." That verb would be עשה.
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
@brilliant: No sir. That is not one of the manuscripts listed. If I am not mistaken, some of these include: C. Codex Ephraemi Syri rescriptus Parisiensis. An Arabic manuscript. A Syriac manuscript. An Armenian manuscript. Clement of Rome. And Luciferus. Basically, I don't see anything suggesting this is the original reading based on the weight of manuscript evidence.
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
@JonEricson: Might I also suggest that the title be edited to: When James and Jude use κύριος in reference to Jesus, is their meaning limited to “master”?
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
@Brillant: Here's Constantine Tischendorf's notes: C2 5. 8. 68. tol syrbodl are arm Clem280 Lcif219 G ο θεος
Jun
14
comment When James and Jude use κύριος is their meaning limited to “master”?
@brillaint: Yes indeed. That would be the equivalent of the Tetragrammaton right there, as well as 1:9, 1:14. The problem is: it's not clear whether κύριος in each of those verses (inc. 1:5) is referring to Jesus or the Father.
Jun
13
comment Did Paul expect Timothy to see “the last days”?
Jas 3.1: Paul proved in Romans 7:1-4 that death annuls the marriage bond between a husband and a wife. Of course, that is God's design so that those who are resurrected can be married to Christ and Christ alone.
Jun
13
comment Did Paul expect Timothy to see “the last days”?
I would have to agree with Jeff Roe. Very true is it that the apostles were living in the last days. Whether we ourselves may say we are living in the last days cannot be so easily proven.
Jun
13
comment What does Azazel mean in Leviticus 16:8?
@Kate: Are you asking the exact meaning of the word (which you have already seemed to understand), or are you asking what the word is referring to in that particular scripture?
Jun
1
comment Why does John note the name of the servant whose ear was cut off?
Perhaps he knew him, which may say something about who the author is. :)
May
31
comment What analogy is Joel using to compare God's spirit to?
The spirit is also poured out in Zech. 12:10.
May
29
comment Why does Jesus tell his mother his “hour has not yet come”?
Intriguing theory. Thanks Kate.