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bio website simply-a-christian.com
location United States
age 33
visits member for 1 year, 11 months
seen 11 mins ago

Nov
29
comment Is the Kingdom of God “within” you or “among” you?
"To the objection that the words were said to the Pharisees, and that the kingdom was not in their hearts, it may be answered that our Lord might use “you” of humanity, even when addressing Pharisees. He never, like a merely human preacher, says “we.”" ccel.org/ccel/schaff/…
Nov
29
comment Is the Kingdom of God “within” you or “among” you?
bible-researcher.com/luke17.21.html
Nov
27
comment How do you know when to understand the Hebrew word עלום (olam) as “eternal” or simply a long duration?
Just to offer some advice, a great Christian commentary on the Old Testament is by Keil and Delitzsch (that is, if you are a Christian). You should read what they have to say on this verse: studylight.org/com/kdo/view.cgi?bk=18&ch=143
Nov
27
comment How do you know when to understand the Hebrew word עלום (olam) as “eternal” or simply a long duration?
There is no way to definitely determine according to a rule. You have to rely on context.
Nov
20
comment John 6:37 - What is meant by “Father gives me”?
I'm not implying an order; rather, I'm simply saying that those who see and believe (not just see, of course, for many saw yet did not believe) are those whom the Father gave.
Nov
19
comment “A god” or “God” in John 1:1?
The Gospel of John was certainly written in Greek. If you read the Gospel, you'll note that the author often says things like "the feast of the Jews." He wouldn't say such a thing if he was writing to Jews. But he would if he was writing to the Gentiles (Greeks).
Nov
14
comment Based on Genesis 4:26, upon whom did Adam call?
@Rick: הוּחַל (huchal) is passive voice.
Nov
14
comment Based on Genesis 4:26, upon whom did Adam call?
In short, it doesn't necessarily mean that Adam did not know God's name, Yahveh. Rather, it means, that at that time, people began to worship, and/ or give thanks, and/ or appeal to Yahveh in prayer. But, if I were to throw something out there, maybe the phrase is an ominous foreshadowing. Just two chapters later, we see God destroy the entire world (minus Noach's faily) via a deluge because the whole world had been filled with violence and corruption. Perhaps Enosh was calling upon the name of (appealing to) Yahveh for help from the ungodly.
Nov
13
comment Interpretation of Psalm 45:14
@JackDouglas: Here you go: blbclassic.org/search/… or blueletterbible.org/search/…
Nov
12
comment When does the first day of Genesis 1 begin?
@JohnUnsworth: Please see the citation in my edit.
Nov
5
comment Meaning of στοιχεῖον (stoicheion)
Just a quick question: why wouldn't τὰ στοιχεῖα τοῦ κόσμου meaning "heavenly bodies" be credible in the first place? One of the usages of τὰ στοιχεῖα elsewhere is indeed heavenly bodies. And, that's always been my understanding of that passage. I don't know about Druidism though. At the least, we're talking about Pagan idolatry.
Oct
28
comment Who is the God of God in Psalm 45:8?
Are you asking about the translation? Or the interpretation?
Oct
23
comment Judges 17:7 - How could the young man be both “a Levite” and “of the family of Judah”?
"This is certainly how the author/redactor, who put these apparent contradictions within the same verse, intended it to be understood." I believe that's the question at hand and is not so certain.
Oct
23
comment Judges 17:7 - How could the young man be both “a Levite” and “of the family of Judah”?
Your explanation would definitely explain the significance of the phrase "...of Beit-Lechem of Yehuda..." It means he lived in Beit-Lechem, a city of Yehuda. However, it fails to explain the significance of the phrase "...of the family of Yehuda..." This implies descent from the tribe of Yehuda, and tribal descent is only derived paternally. Same as being a Levite. So, how could this man be a Levite (from his father) and also of the family of Yehuda (likewise from his father)? That's the question. Now, if you can provide a scripture that proves mishpocha is also used of land, that helps.
Oct
15
comment Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
If you are referring to ὀ and ὁ, yes, both are omicrons.
Oct
15
comment Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
This is omicron: ο. This is omega: ω.
Oct
14
comment Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
ὁ is the Greek letter omicron. Omega is ω. Yes, each has a different diacritic. It would be ho theos, with a rough breathing before the ὁ (which is what that diacritic signifies). ὀ would be without rough breathing.
Oct
11
comment Is the “captain of the Lord's host” an angel or God Himself?
Interesting take...the hornet aspect. :)
Oct
11
comment Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?
@Jim Thio: ὁ is simply the definite article, equivalent to the English word "the." The exact pronunciation of ו varies depending on dialect and era. Today, most would pronounce it as a voiced labio-dental fricative (IPA: /v/)and transliterate it into English as "v." However, in antiquity, some say it was pronounced as a labio-velar approximant (IPA: /w/) and, as such, it would be transliterated into English as "w." As I mentioned, it also functioned as a vowel. So, it could represent a "u" (it is then called shuruk), or it could represent a "o" (it is then called cholam male), וּ and וֹ, resp.
Oct
8
comment Land of Moriah or Mount Moriah?
As an aside, why is the definite article prefixed to moriyah? That's not normal, is it?