5,465 reputation
717
bio website
location United States
age 33
visits member for 1 year, 5 months
seen 10 mins ago

Aug
20
comment Different translation of “The Great Tribulation?”
@swascheck: Ah, thanks. Hmm...but there are so many times where we find an article in the English of the KVJ, an article in the Greek of the TR, but no article in the Latin (of course). So, did the translators basically use their common sense in such cases?
Aug
20
comment Different translation of “The Great Tribulation?”
@swascheck: I don't quite understand that. Here's why. Were the KJV translators --- i.e., those who produced the English translation known as the KJV --- looking at Latin text or Greek text when they wrote their translation of Rev. 7:14? If Greek text, then they certainly saw the definite article, right?
Aug
20
comment What gender does the pronouns have that denote ruach or pneuma?
You also need to understand that, in a language in which words possess gender, there can be a grammatical gender, and a natural gender.
Aug
8
comment Did the Romans (and Jewish law) allow the Jewish authorities to execute?
This applied to Israel as a sovereign nation. Israel possessed no such absolute sovereignty under the rule of the Roman empire.
Aug
7
comment Does Hebrews 7 claim that Yeshu'a is Malki-Tzedek?
There are many who believe Jesus to have been Melchisedek. Just one example: near-death.com/experiences/origen042.html. But rest assured, there are others.
Aug
6
comment Interpretation of Psalm 45:14
@Stephen: I don't think my answer necessarily answered your question yet. Don't worry, I'll actually answer the question you asked shortly.
Aug
4
comment Interpretation of Psalm 45:14
Sorry about that, @MonicaCellio. It should be Psa. 2.6. Actually, I believe the Psalmist refers to two kings: one is YHVH (Psa. 44:4), and one is "that king," as you say. That would be the orthodox Jewish understanding, amIright?
Aug
3
comment Interpretation of Psalm 45:14
Psa. 2:8, 18:50, 21:1, 72:1...
Jul
3
comment What is the rock that dashes the feet of the fourth kingdom in Nebuchadnezzar’s Dream in Daniel 2?
I believe the stone cut out without hands is Christ and his body. His body, of course, is the Church.
Jul
2
comment What is the third Commandment referring to?
christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/952/…
Jul
2
comment Which four kingdoms are represented in the statue of Nebuchadnezzar's dream in Daniel Chapter 2?
@Mike: Supplied one commentary just to support my view.
Jul
2
comment Which four kingdoms are represented in the statue of Nebuchadnezzar's dream in Daniel Chapter 2?
I know...I'll work on the answer for you.
Jul
1
comment Which four kingdoms are represented in the statue of Nebuchadnezzar's dream in Daniel Chapter 2?
Totally right! Thanks. I was in a rush getting ready for work. :(
Jun
30
comment Is John 3:18 the words of Jesus, or of John?
My opinion/ belief is that John is speaking from v. 13 on. Jesus = first-person, John = third-person in that chapter.
Jun
28
comment In what way Jesus is God's Wisdom in 1 Corinthians 1:24
Is there any scriptural evidence that "wisdom" is ever a plan? Please define "plan" and cite relevant scripture in support of this if indeed it is so.
Jun
26
comment What did Moses do at Horeb in the first place?
While Paul says Sinai is in Arabia, there were three different "Arabias" during the time of the Roman Empire. Arabia Petraea, Arabia Deserta, and Arabia Felix.
Jun
22
comment What does “My Lord and my God” Mean?
There's John (the author/ narrator), and then there's two other "persons," if you will: ὁ λόγος ("the Word") and ὀ θεὸς ("God"; note the definite article). There's no need to introduce more than two people in the hypothetical since the context clearly indicates only two persons are involved in John 1:1. John is trying to emphasize that ὁ λόγος is God (θεὸς) in nature (or species, εἶδος), but he doesn't want the reader to think that ὁ λόγος is the same "person" as ὀ θεὸς. Every living thing can be classified under an εἶδος, or species.
Jun
22
comment What does “My Lord and my God” Mean?
θεὸς is anathrous in John 1:1 because John is informing the reader what ὁ λόγος is, not who ὁ λόγος is. For example, I imagine I am standing in a room with another man. John wants to tell an alien (play along) what I am. The alien is not familiar with our species. So, he tells the alien, "Ἐστίν ἄνθρωπος." "He is man" or "he is human." If John had said, "Ἐστίν ὀ ἄνθρωπος," the alien might have thought John was saying, "He is the man." The alien would have said, "How can he be the man (pointing to the man beside me)? There are two men right there!"
Jun
19
comment Can the word translated as “messiah” be considered a title when referring to Jesus?
@PatFerguson: The way you word it, it appears that "hoped-for" is instrinsically related to the meaning of the Hebrew word משיח or Greek word χριστός. The words simply means "anointed one."
Jun
18
comment Can the word translated as “messiah” be considered a title when referring to Jesus?
Not quite accurate. משיח is also used to describe a Gentile, the Persian king Koresh ("Cyrus") (Isa. 45:1). And, frankly, the idea of "hoped-for anointed one" is yet to be proven and shouldn't simply be assumed according to what people have understood by hearsay or tradition.