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Nov
5
comment Exo. 2:12: Did Moses commit murder?
I read Exo. 2:14 and it seems to imply that the actions were the same --- similar enough for the Hebrew man to ask Moses, "הַלְהָרְגֵנִי אַתָּה אֹמֵר כַּאֲשֶׁר הָרַגְתָּ אֶת־הַמִּצְרִי"? (Basically, "Do you intend to kill me like you killed the Egyptian?") Why assume Moses would kill him for just brawling (and not "possibly killing" his brother)? Anyway, just some thoughts I had. The answer was fine though.
Nov
5
comment Exo. 2:12: Did Moses commit murder?
You infer that based on Moses' action, right?
Nov
5
comment Exo. 2:2: “…that he was good, and she hid him three months…”
Thanks Bruce James. Not sure this totally answers the questions asked. I mean, is there something that offers the peshat understanding of the phrase וַתֵּרֶא אֹתוֹ כִּי טוֹב הוּא?
Nov
5
comment Exo. 2:12: Did Moses commit murder?
So, my question is, why was the Egyptian (Exo. 2:11) considered a rodef, and thus killed by Moses, while the one Hebrew [smiting the other Hebrew] (Exo. 2:13) wasn't considered a rodef and killed by Moses when he came upon him, when "third-parties have the right to kill the pursuer," especially under Jewish law?
Nov
5
comment Exo. 2:12: Did Moses commit murder?
Good answer, Bruce James. According to you (i.e., the sources you cite), the Egyptian was a rodef, I assume, based on the phrase וַיַּרְא אִישׁ מִצְרִי מַכֶּה אִישׁ עִבְרִי in Exo. 2:11, in particular, מַכֶּה, Hif'il conjugation of the verb נָכָה. However, in Exo. 2:13, another event occurs, in which we find the phrase וַיֹּאמֶר לָֽרָשָׁע לָמָּה תַכֶּה רֵעֶךָ, in particular the verb תַכֶּה, again, the Hif'il conjugation of the verb נָכָה.
Nov
4
comment Who said “of them which thou gavest me have I lost none”?
John 17:12.................
Nov
4
comment Was the Passover meal to be boiled according to Deuteronomy 16:5-7?
maj nem ɪz dæn: Noted and done. :)
Oct
31
comment What is the new covenant made with Jews/Israel in Jeremiah 31:31
@BlessedGeek: Great questions. If you wouldn't mind creating a new post for those questions, I would love to offer my thoughts. I'm not sure I should include those in my post as the OP didn't originally ask them. My response is quite long as is. Thank you. :)
Oct
30
comment What is “Parousia”? Does it have any relation to the second coming of Christ?
@Susan: Thanks for the insight. :)
Oct
14
comment What does it means to “afflict your souls” as in Lev. 16?
The KJV being "a translation of a Latin translation" does not automatically dictate that the KJV is thus a "terrible version." I don't know why you imply otherwise.
Oct
13
comment Did English-language translations describe Adam and Eve as eating apples?
It's not about confusing the words. It's a pun. :)
Oct
10
comment What is the difference between “soul” and “spirit” or ψυχή and πνεῦμα, respectively?
Sounds like a good plan, Susan. Let's see if @w.kent agrees.
Oct
10
comment What is the difference between “soul” and “spirit” or ψυχή and πνεῦμα, respectively?
Recommend this be moved to Christianity.SE, unless closed. I don't see it being appropriate for Biblical Hermeneutics since the question involves a more generalized investigation of two concepts rather than a direct exegesis of biblical texts. Anyone agree?
May
19
comment Language question in Mark 15:34
Ah, yes, I recall that now. That's obviously it. :)
May
19
comment Language question in Mark 15:34
But, why didn't the author simply translate the first statement in the first place and simply omit the rest (from "which" onwards). Any ideas?
May
19
comment The grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1Peter 4:6
Can you share from which Bible "not in English" you encountered your latter translation?
May
10
comment What is the significance of the phrase ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος in the Apocalypse?
In a week, I will review the answers to see which is most detailed, which has the most support (citations, quotes from scholars), and of course, which answers the questions posed. Thanks everyone for your contributions thus far. They are each excellent. Also, if you give your opinion on what something means, and it isn't that obvious, please corroborate your opinion by citing a reputable scholar who concurs with your opinion.
May
10
comment Did Avraham marry Hagar? Did Ya'akov marry Zilpah?
Since you're the only one who answered, you'll get the best answer.
May
8
comment What does μονογενὴς Θεὸς means in John 1:18?
But the reader should know that there can be no absolute certainty that μονογενὴς Θεὸς is the correct reading in John 1:18. The reader will then need to answer based on the assumption that it is the correct reading.
May
8
comment What is the significance of the phrase ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος in the Apocalypse?
But Rev. 1:11 is also a textual variant, with Ἐγώ ἐιμι τὸ Α καὶ τὸ Ω, Ὃ πρῶτος καὶ ὁ ἔσχατος being supported by hardly any witnesses. The majority omit it. As Heinrich Meyer notes, "The addition after λεγούσης, ʼεγώ εἰμι τὸ α καὶ τὸ ω, ὁ πρῶτος καὶ ὁ ἔσχατος καὶ (Elz.), is without attestation." And, I hate to admit it, but Rev. 22:13 is a bit ambiguous too as to who it is referring to by the phrase "the Alpha and the Omega."