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bio website simply-a-christian.com
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visits member for 1 year, 8 months
seen Jul 26 at 4:57

Jan
15
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
Yeah, I'm aware...but it also happens in 1 Kings 1:8, 1:10 with Natan (נְבִיָא), as well as 1 Kings 1:22-23, 1:32, 1:34, etc. In fact, it seems to be the norm. :) Surely, the targumist doesn't mean "a prophet" in all those passages where the Hebrew clearly means "the prophet." Thoughts?
Jan
15
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
I thought נְבִיָא was the definite form. What about, for example, the targum of 1 Sam. 22:5? It has נְבִיָא which is supposedly a translation of the Hebrew הַנָּבִיא?
Jan
15
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
I knew it was written in Aramaic, but I figured (wrongly) that the definite Aramaic would be written the same as the Hebrew (because the Hebrew word ends in א). And most definite Aramaic nouns simply end in א-, not אה-. Anyway, apparently נְבִיאְתָא is the equivalent Aramaic word for "prophetess."
Jan
15
comment What does “Cursed is the man who kills his neighbour secretly.” in Deuteronomy 27:24 mean?
Can you elaborate the rationale?
Jan
14
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
There's a ktiv v. kri variant. The ktiv (i.e., what is written) is נְבִיאָה, meaning "prophetess," but the kri (what is recited/ read) is נְבִיָּא, meaning "prophet." This also occurs in Ezra 6:14, however we find הַנָּבִיא (the prophet) elsewhere, e.g. Hag. 1:1, 1:3, etc. Also, we always find verbs conjugated in masculine-gender when the subject is Haggai. I'll let someone else answer though. :)
Jan
14
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
Well, if you have two prophets, one female and one male, and you are referring to both of them in Hebrew, you would use the masculine plural נְבִיאִים. In other words, even if a group of 100 people consisted of only 1 male, you would still address the group by a masculine (rather than feminine) plural (whether pronoun, verb, etc.).
Jan
13
comment What was Noah thinking when he sent a raven from the ark?
I wonder why Luther seems to accuse Jerome of being the origin of the supposed mistake. After all, the LXX (which was translated by Jewish interpreters) translated it as ἐξελθὼν οὐχ ὑπέστρεψεν, meaning "and after it went forth, it did not return." So, this pre-dated Jerome.
Jan
12
comment Did God say that Adam will die on the same day he ate the fruit?
@brillaint: No, it's not as simple as "death is death." Not even Judaism believes that. The NT does teach us that men can be physically alive yet spiritually dead.
Jan
11
comment Why does the genealogy in Luke come after Jesus' baptism?
For more information, you may read my blog post on this subject. simply-a-christian.com/blog/the-genealogy-of-the-gospel-of-luke
Jan
10
comment What is the meaning of τῆς παραγγελίας in 1 Tim. 1:5?
Sooooo...τῆς παραγγελίας means "the commandment"? If so, what does "the commandment" refer to? You focused more on τέλος and I didn't ask about that.
Jan
9
comment What does “sit” mean in the scripture “The prostitute who sits on many waters.”
Come on ladies and gentlemen. We need to encourage questions on this forum. If you believe the question is good enough to answer, please be kind and reward the individual with an upvote for taking the time to ask (just like you would be thankful for receiving an upvote after taking the time to answer). :)
Dec
31
comment Eat my flesh and drink my blood
I've never seen that verse in 2 Sam. 23 before. Thanks! :)
Dec
31
comment What is the best translation of πᾶς ἀνὴρ in 1 Cor 11:4?
There's absolutely no possibility. The Greek would have to say "πάντες εἰ μὴ [ἡ] γυνὴ..."–
Dec
30
comment Times of the restitution of all things
@user2479: And others are welcomed to express their view. Point being, however, that this is not a debate forum. As long as you understand that.
Dec
30
comment Times of the restitution of all things
@user2479: I wasn't delving into any sort of theology. I was going by the standard usage of the word within the context of other scriptures. You also don't need to respond to my answer. If you think my answer does the job of answering your question - whether you agree with it or not - you simply upvote it. If you think it's of low quality, then you would downvote it. But, I won't be engaging in a debate about the theology related to the answer itself; there's no point.
Dec
30
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
@JimThio: I agree with you.
Dec
30
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
@JimThio: I did translate it as "was born," right? :)
Dec
30
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
Christians and Jews believe that. David Kimchi was an Orthodox Jewish rabbi. The only thing I would agree with is that it speaks of Jesus. Anything but that, I consider nonsense. :)
Dec
30
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
@JimThio: I'm wondering if you actually read Radak's comment? "And you should know that it is a typical behavior of the past tense verbs in the holy language to use the past tense in place of the future tense (which is marked by the letters איתן), and this is mostly in prophecies because the matter is clear as if past, because it has already been decreed."
Dec
29
comment How to interpret Isaiah 9:6?
@JimThio: Yes, it is "perfect tense." The translation "was born" is fine. Biblical Hebrew verbs only have a past (some call it "perfect") and a future (some call it "imperfect"). They don't exactly correlate to English, so to think the perfect must be translated as "has been born" (like the English perfect) isn't accurate. In general, "perfect" refers to completed events, whereas "imperfect" does not (Biblical Hebrew imperfect includes English present and future tenses). And I edited my original post to include some information for you.