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Jan
10
comment John 1:16: What is “the fullness” (τὸ πλήρωμα) that was received by the author of the fourth gospel?
Can you elaborate how you came to the concusion that "'fullness' is a quantification of God's unlimited grace"?
Jan
10
comment John 1:16: What is “the fullness” (τὸ πλήρωμα) that was received by the author of the fourth gospel?
You're so right. Can't believe I missed the ἐκ. I need some coffee. :( Let me edit the original post.
Jan
10
comment Is there a way to express monotheism in hebrew language?
I take it you're questioning my translation? Have a peek at the article I hyperlinked.
Jan
10
comment John 1:35: Who were the two disciples of John the Baptist?
Any idea as to who the second disciple could be?
Jan
5
comment What did priests do before the age of thirty?
But the priests also worked during the feasts. So it wasn't only 2 days/ year.
Jan
3
comment Translation of “abba” (Αββα, אבא)
Are you still around this site?
Dec
31
comment Why are “Judah” and “Israel” distinguished in many verses?
@Selvam: You still around? :)
Dec
24
comment Did Jesus read minds or perceive them?
@Tau: That's very kind of you. Thank you for the compliment.
Dec
21
comment “A god” or “God” in John 1:1?
@Wayne: Does "through" change that fact that the Word cannot be created since everything that was made (i.e., every creature) was made through him? If the Word is a creature, how could he have created himself through himself if he had yet to be created?
Dec
20
comment Authorship of the LXX of Psa. 24:1
Possibly. I don't think there's a way to know. I suppose the original question I asked remains unanswerable, then.
Dec
17
comment Why does God seek to kill Moses in Exodus 4:24
See Keil & Delitzsch on Exo. 4:24. studylight.org/commentaries/kdo/view.cgi?bk=1&ch=4
Dec
17
comment What is the significance of 2nd John being addressed to the “elect lady”?
"would this also be used for example as to allowing women to be Elders in a church?" I don't see why. It doesn't say the "elect lady" (Ἐκλεκτῇ κυρίᾳ) is an elder (πρεσβύτερος), but rather, the author is. In case you are interested, see p. 181 (in the book). simply-a-christian.com/texts/Henry_Alford/…
Dec
17
comment Was Jesus’ commandment to “love enemies” (Matthew 5:43) meant literally?
Is there another way to interpet the commandment to love our enemies?
Dec
16
comment Ezekiel 16:4 - Why were babies rubbed with salt?
You might be interested: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/27336/…
Dec
8
comment Accurate translation of חֶמְדַּ֣ת in Haggai 2:7
I like the diagrams. Very nice. :)
Dec
6
comment What does it mean for Jesus to fulfill the law?
A source to back up your assertion that τελειόω is a synonym?
Dec
5
comment How to save Paul from the Galatians 3 “seed” vs “seeds” argument blunder?
Actually, you are mistaken. The plural for זֶרַע can be found in the word זַרְעֵיכֶם in 1 Sam. 8:15. The inclusion of the י makes it plural. It means "your (pl.) seeds (pl.)." Obviously, זֶרַע is more commonly used as a collective plural, but still, זֶרַע does have a plural form found in scripture. You may now step down from your pedestool. By the way, is not a feminine noun, so it's not זרעות, but זרעים.
Dec
5
comment What is the difference between hope and faith?
You should include translations of foreign language texts. Most people here speak English. We ask questions in English. We answer in English. So, it would assist readers in providing the English translation along with the Greek/foreign language text. :)
Dec
3
comment The name of God in ancient manuscripts
Another word (off top of my head) is גֹּבַהּ, meaning "height."
Dec
3
comment The name of God in ancient manuscripts
There's not a double ה. Rather the ה has a mappik in it, thus הּ, as in יָהּ. However, it doesn't mean the ה should be pronounced as הה. Rather, it means that the ה should be vocalized, whereas name without it, the ה is simply unvocalized. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mappiq