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bio website simply-a-christian.com
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visits member for 2 years
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Feb
26
comment What is to Reign on David's throne?
@DrFry: Ah :(. Don't worry about it brother. Your answer was perfectly fine, to me. I guess when you mention the "NT" here on BH.SE, then heads spin. Whatever. I upvoted you anyway.
Feb
21
comment What is to Reign on David's throne?
It certainly does. It's a reference to God's promise to David regarding his seed (cp. Psa. 132:11). As for doing things like David, I'm not sure.
Feb
21
comment What is to Reign on David's throne?
To be king of Israel.
Feb
18
comment Who did Jesus preach to in 1 Peter 3:19?
You could also mention that "angels" (ἄγγελοι) are equated to "spirits" (πνεύματα) in Psa. 104:4 (cp. Heb. 1:7).
Feb
13
comment What is the proper translation in English, for Pi Hahiroth.?
@msh210: Yona/Yonah/Jonah is a transliteration, not a translation.
Feb
12
comment What is the proper translation in English, for Pi Hahiroth.?
@msh210: When he said "Jonah," I'm sure he was referring to the original Hebrew יונה. He should be more precise though.
Jan
30
comment What does the Greek word αἰῶνας refer to in Heb. 1:2?
As for Dods, if you mean that Philo consistently describes the λόγος as having a hand in creation, I definitely noticed that. I wrote a brief passage on it if you get the time. simply-a-christian.com/discourse/…
Jan
30
comment What does the Greek word αἰῶνας refer to in Heb. 1:2?
+1 Good answer, Davïd. Btw, whose is the face in your avatar?
Jan
30
comment What does the Greek word αἰῶνας refer to in Heb. 1:2?
Davïd, as for olam ha-zeh and olam ha-ba, I actually think that is better translated as "this age" and "age to come" (referring to a time period) rather than "this world" and "world to come" (refer to the world as a spatial concept).
Jan
30
comment What does the Greek word αἰῶνας refer to in Heb. 1:2?
Davïd, just fyi, your answer was superb. I might not mention that in the future for all your answers, but just to let you know, you consistently supply great answers. As for these texts, you may (or may not) agree that the Jews have a long oral tradition. Now, it's certainly a possibility that this notion of "three worlds" was invented after the first millennium, but it may just as well have been passed down for millennia. I do believe Philo and Heb. 1:2 share much, much, MUCH in common. I'll have to see if he mentions anything about multiple worlds. :)
Jan
24
comment Internal Evidence of Authorship of the Fourth Gospel
The question is more concerned with internal evidence identifying the author as a certain "John," not simply the beloved disciple. I believe all conservative Christians agree that the beloved disciple wrote it or had a hand in writing it.
Jan
23
comment Was there precedent for John to link the satan and the serpent?
I will try to get to this later today, God willing. :)
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
In Devarim Rabba 11, Sama'el is called "the wicked" (הרשע). Sounds more like the Christian idea of Satan than the Orthodox Jewish one.
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
he.wikisource.org/wiki/…
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
As for fallen angels, you must be kidding to deny that. Pirkei deRabbi Eliezer, Ch. 22: The angels who fell from their holy place in heaven saw the daughters of the generations of Kayin walking about naked, with their eyes painted like harlots, and they went astray after them, and they took wives from amongst them, as it is said (Gen. 6:2), "And the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair, and they took them wives of all whom they chose."
Jan
23
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
As for identifying Sama'el as Satan, and thus, both as the serpent, see simply-a-christian.com/blog/….
Jan
19
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
Yeah, @GoneQuiet, sure...Jews just call him Sama'el, but still believe he is a fallen angel. Good try though. :)
Jan
18
comment Why is Isaiah 14:12-15 interpreted by some to refer to Satan?
King of Tyre? I thought it was about the king of Babylon (cp. Isa. 14:4: עַל־מֶלֶךְ בָּבֶל)?
Jan
16
comment Why did not the Apostle Paul ever say “In the name of him who says” (i.e., Heb. be-shem omro)?
You were spot on in #3. Well done.
Jan
15
comment Could the prophet Haggai be a prophetess?
Yeah, I'm aware...but it also happens in 1 Kings 1:8, 1:10 with Natan (נְבִיָא), as well as 1 Kings 1:22-23, 1:32, 1:34, etc. In fact, it seems to be the norm. :) Surely, the targumist doesn't mean "a prophet" in all those passages where the Hebrew clearly means "the prophet." Thoughts?